NUR 2063 / NUR2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology
Final Exam Review Rasmussen Actual Exam – Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Cellular Adaptation, Inflammation & Immunity
Q1: A 65-year-old man with chronic hypertension has echocardiographic evidence of
thickened left ventricular walls with a normal chamber size. The nurse recognises this
cellular adaptation as:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy [CORRECT]
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of individual
cells, and the heart muscle responds to chronic pressure overload from hypertension by
thickening its walls without increasing cell number; this is classic adaptive hypertrophy,
not atrophy or hyperplasia.
Q2: A patient with long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease is found to have
columnar epithelium replacing the normal squamous epithelium in the distal
esophagus. This cellular adaptation is called:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia [CORRECT]
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Metaplasia occurs when one mature cell type is
replaced by another mature cell type better suited to withstand an environmental stress;
,in Barrett's esophagus, the squamous lining switches to columnar epithelium to cope
with chronic acid exposure.
Q3: A patient suffers a myocardial infarction. On microscopic examination, the dead
myocardial tissue shows preserved cellular architecture with loss of nuclei and
increased eosinophilia. This type of necrosis is best described as:
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Coagulative necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Coagulative necrosis is characteristic of ischemic
injury in solid organs like the heart and kidney because the architectural framework
remains visible for several days even though the cells are dead; liquefactive necrosis is
more typical of brain ischemia or bacterial infection.
Q4: During embryonic development, webbing between the fingers is eliminated by a
controlled process of programmed cell death. This process is known as:
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis [CORRECT]
C. Autophagy
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs under
normal physiological conditions—like removing tissue between developing
fingers—without triggering an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis which is always
pathological and inflammatory.
Q5: A patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a black, dry, shriveled great
toe. The nurse recognises this as:
A. Wet gangrene
B. Gas gangrene
C. Dry gangrene [CORRECT]
D. Liquefactive necrosis
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The best answer is C. Dry gangrene results from chronic ischemia without
bacterial infection, producing a dry, shrunken, black eschar commonly seen in peripheral
vascular disease and diabetes; wet gangrene involves bacterial infection and
liquefaction, while gas gangrene is caused by clostridial infection.
Q6: During the vascular phase of acute inflammation, histamine release from mast cells
causes which of the following changes?
A. Vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability
B. Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability [CORRECT]
C. Neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis
D. Collagen deposition and scar formation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Histamine is one of the first chemical mediators
released during acute inflammation, and its primary effects are vasodilation—which
brings more blood to the area—and increased vascular permeability, which allows fluid
and proteins to leak into the tissues causing edema.
Q7: A wound healing by secondary intention is characterised by:
A. Approximated wound edges with minimal granulation tissue
B. Significant tissue loss, extensive granulation tissue, and wound contraction
[CORRECT]
C. Immediate closure with sutures and no scar formation
D. Healing without inflammation or collagen deposition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Secondary intention healing occurs when there is
substantial tissue loss or contamination, so the wound must fill in from the bottom up
with granulation tissue, resulting in more scar formation than primary intention healing
where edges are neatly brought together.
Q8: A child receives the measles-mumps-rubella vaccine. The immunity developed is
best classified as:
A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity [CORRECT]
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
Final Exam Review Rasmussen Actual Exam – Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Cellular Adaptation, Inflammation & Immunity
Q1: A 65-year-old man with chronic hypertension has echocardiographic evidence of
thickened left ventricular walls with a normal chamber size. The nurse recognises this
cellular adaptation as:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy [CORRECT]
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of individual
cells, and the heart muscle responds to chronic pressure overload from hypertension by
thickening its walls without increasing cell number; this is classic adaptive hypertrophy,
not atrophy or hyperplasia.
Q2: A patient with long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease is found to have
columnar epithelium replacing the normal squamous epithelium in the distal
esophagus. This cellular adaptation is called:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia [CORRECT]
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Metaplasia occurs when one mature cell type is
replaced by another mature cell type better suited to withstand an environmental stress;
,in Barrett's esophagus, the squamous lining switches to columnar epithelium to cope
with chronic acid exposure.
Q3: A patient suffers a myocardial infarction. On microscopic examination, the dead
myocardial tissue shows preserved cellular architecture with loss of nuclei and
increased eosinophilia. This type of necrosis is best described as:
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Coagulative necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Coagulative necrosis is characteristic of ischemic
injury in solid organs like the heart and kidney because the architectural framework
remains visible for several days even though the cells are dead; liquefactive necrosis is
more typical of brain ischemia or bacterial infection.
Q4: During embryonic development, webbing between the fingers is eliminated by a
controlled process of programmed cell death. This process is known as:
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis [CORRECT]
C. Autophagy
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs under
normal physiological conditions—like removing tissue between developing
fingers—without triggering an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis which is always
pathological and inflammatory.
Q5: A patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a black, dry, shriveled great
toe. The nurse recognises this as:
A. Wet gangrene
B. Gas gangrene
C. Dry gangrene [CORRECT]
D. Liquefactive necrosis
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The best answer is C. Dry gangrene results from chronic ischemia without
bacterial infection, producing a dry, shrunken, black eschar commonly seen in peripheral
vascular disease and diabetes; wet gangrene involves bacterial infection and
liquefaction, while gas gangrene is caused by clostridial infection.
Q6: During the vascular phase of acute inflammation, histamine release from mast cells
causes which of the following changes?
A. Vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability
B. Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability [CORRECT]
C. Neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis
D. Collagen deposition and scar formation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Histamine is one of the first chemical mediators
released during acute inflammation, and its primary effects are vasodilation—which
brings more blood to the area—and increased vascular permeability, which allows fluid
and proteins to leak into the tissues causing edema.
Q7: A wound healing by secondary intention is characterised by:
A. Approximated wound edges with minimal granulation tissue
B. Significant tissue loss, extensive granulation tissue, and wound contraction
[CORRECT]
C. Immediate closure with sutures and no scar formation
D. Healing without inflammation or collagen deposition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Secondary intention healing occurs when there is
substantial tissue loss or contamination, so the wound must fill in from the bottom up
with granulation tissue, resulting in more scar formation than primary intention healing
where edges are neatly brought together.
Q8: A child receives the measles-mumps-rubella vaccine. The immunity developed is
best classified as:
A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity [CORRECT]
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
