NUR 398 SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026

NUR 398 SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026 What would be the appropriate duration for antibodies to develop in a patient with genital herpes? 1 6 weeks 2 8 weeks 3 10 weeks 4 12 weeks - Answers 4 It takes 12 weeks from the date of exposure for the herpes simplex virus to reach detectable levels of antibodies. False negative tests can occur if the patient is tested before 12 weeks after the primary infection. Which statement is true regarding condylomata acuminata? 1 They are treated with azithromycin. 2 They are not often seen with other infections. 3 They are caused by certain types of human papilloma virus (HPV). 4 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay is used to confirm the diagnosis. - Answers 3 Condylomata acuminata (also known as genital warts) are caused by certain types of HPV. Genital warts are treated with podofilox gel and cryotherapy. Azithromycin is used to treat chlamydial infections. Genital warts are the most common viral disease that is sexually transmitted and are often seen with other infections. Diagnosis is made by examination of the lesions; PCR assay is used to confirm genital herpes. Which groups of people are at greater risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? Select all that apply. 1 Lesbian women 2 Pregnant women 3 Postmenopausal women 4 Adolescent boys and girls 5 Men who have sex with men (MSM) - Answers 2,3,4,5 Groups who are at greatest risk for acquiring STIs include MSM, postmenopausal and pregnant women, and adolescents. All heterosexual women are at risk for STIs, and that includes pregnant women. MSM are at high risk for HIV. Postmenopausal women are at risk because many avoid the use of barrier protection since pregnancy is unlikely. Adolescents are at risk because of their lack of knowledge about the risks for disease. It has been found that lesbian women are at decreased risk for STIs. Which treatment regimen is preferred in patients with severe genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection? 1 Acyclovir oral (PO) administration with hospitalization 2 Acyclovir oral (PO) administration without hospitalization 3 Acyclovir intravenous (IV) administration with hospitalization 4 Acyclovir intramuscular (IM) administration with hospitalization - Answers 3 IV acyclovir therapy should be provided for patients who have severe genital HSV disease. Hospitalization is required in these patients because severe HSV infection is complicated with disseminated infections and also central nervous system complications. Oral acyclovir is preferred for patients who have recurrent outbreaks. Acyclovir should not be given intramuscularly.Test-Taking Tip: You have at least a 25% chance of selecting the correct response in multiple-choice items. If you are uncertain about a question, eliminate the choices that you believe are wrong and then call on your knowledge, skills, and abilities to choose from the remaining responses. Which organism is a primary risk factor for cervical cancer? 1 Hepatits B virus 2 Herpes simplex virus 3 Human papilloma virus (HPV) 4 Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) - Answers 3 Infection by the human papilloma virus (HPV) is considered to be the primary risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. Hepatitis B virus causes hepatitis infection and is associated with perinatal infections. Herpes simplex virus can cause either cold sores or genital herpes infection. HIV causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). What findings does the nurse observe in a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? 1 Urinary retention 2 Reddened throat 3 Hunched-over gait 4 Mucoid discharge - Answers 3 The patient with PID has severe pain in the lower abdomen and is uncomfortable with movement. The nurse would observe a hunched-over gait to protect her abdomen. The patient also has painful urination or dysuria. The patient does not experience urinary retention or reddened throat. A pelvic examination reveals a green cervical discharge and a friable cervix. Which information is provided to the patient for the use of condoms that reduce the risk of genital herpes transmission? 1 Use natural membrane condoms. 2 Use a new condom for each sexual act. 3 Avoid using a condom on erect penis. 4 Use oil-based lubricant with latex condoms. - Answers 2 Using a condom more than once makes a condom weak and susceptible to tearing. Latex or polyurethane condoms should be used because natural membrane condoms are more likely to break or slip off during intercourse or withdrawal. A condom should be used on an erect penis; otherwise, it may break during erection. Oil-based lubricants can make latex condoms less effective, so water-based lubricants are preferred. Which bacterial infection may result in inflammation of the fallopian tubes? 1 Treponema pallidum 2 Haemophilus ducreyi 3 Trichomonas vaginalis 4 Chlamydia trachomatis - Answers 4 Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that may cause inflammation of the fallopian tubes. Treponema pallidum is an organism that causes syphilis, resulting in the formation of chancres on the skin or mucous membranes. Haemophilus ducreyi is an organism that causes chancroid, resulting in the formation of sores on the genital organs. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection; the infection occurs in the urethra, prostate, or vagina. What manifestations does the nurse observe upon assessment in a patient with condylomata acuminata, or genital warts? 1 Generalized rash 2 Benign lesions of the skin 3 Squamous papules and pustules 4 Presence of cauliflower-like masses - Answers 4 The patient with condylomata acuminata has small, white or flesh-colored papillary growths that may grow into large cauliflower-like masses. Generalized rash, benign lesions of the skin, and squamous papules and pustules are seen in patients with secondary syphilis. What information should the nurse provide to a patient who has been prescribed podofilox? 1 Use twice daily for 3 days with no treatment for the next 4 days, and repeat for two cycles. 2 Use twice daily for 3 days with no treatment for the next 4 days, and repeat for four cycles. 3 Use thrice daily for 3 days with no treatment for the next 4 days, and repeat for four cycles. 4 Use twice daily for 3 days with no treatment for the next 4 days, and repeat for three cycles. - Answers 2 The recommended dosage regimen of podofilox in genital warts is to use twice daily for 3 days with no treatment for the next 4 days, and repeated for four cycles. Podofilox must be administered for 3 days and none for 4 days, repeated for four cycles, not two. It should not be used three times daily. Podofilox should not be administered for three cycles, but for four. What is the causative organism of condylomata acuminata? 1 Herpes simplex virus 2 Human papilloma virus 3 Trichomonas vaginalis 4 Chlamydia trachomatis - Answers 2 Condylomata acuminata refer to genital warts, and this is caused by human papilloma virus infection. Herpes simplex virus is the causative organism of genital herpes. Trichomonas vaginalis is the protozoan parasite causing trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis is the bacterium that causes Chlamydia infection. Which is considered a primary tool in the prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in the Healthy People 2020 initiative? 1 Education 2 Motivation 3 Abstinence 4 Sexual orientation - Answers 1 In the Healthy People 2020 initiative, one of the primary tools for the prevention of STIs is education. Motivation is a factor that can affect the health status of any patient, but it is not considered a tool for prevention. Abstinence is a safer sex practice. All people, regardless of their sexual orientation, are susceptible to STIs, and this is not considered a tool for prevention. Which condition is suspected in patients diagnosed with condylomata acuminata? 1 Lung cancer 2 Cervical cancer 3 Stomach cancer 4 Hodgkin's disease - Answers 2 Condylomata acuminata is caused by human papilloma virus (HPV). HPV causes the production of proteins, which turn off the tumor suppressor genes. This may allow the cervical lining cells to grow extensively, leading to cervical cancer. Lung cancer is caused by tobacco smoking. Stomach cancer is caused by Helicobacter pylori infection and interstitial metastasis. Hodgkin's disease may be caused by Epstein Barr virus infection. A patient reports painful urination and profuse yellowish-green urethral discharge. What might these symptoms indicate? 1 Chancre 2 Gonorrhea 3 Candidiasis 4 Genital herpes - Answers 2 Gonorrheal infection usually presents with dysuria (painful urination) and profuse yellowish-green discharge from the urethra, cervix, and rectum. Candidiasis of the vagina usually manifests with vulvar irritation and white vaginal discharge. In primary syphilis, chancres manifest as painless, indurated (hard), smooth, weeping lesions on the genital area. Vesicles (blisters) in typical clusters on the genital regions that later rupture into painful erosions are indicative of genital herpes. The nurse is discussing methods of preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which approaches does the nurse suggest for sexually active patients? Select all that apply. 1 Abstinence 2 Latex condoms 3 Mutual monogamy 4 Polyurethane condoms 5 Cervical cap with spermicidal cream - Answers 1,2,3,4 Abstinence, latex condoms, polyurethane condoms, and mutual monogamy all decrease the risk for acquiring an STI. Barrier contraceptive devices like the cervical cap do not ensure protection from STIs. Which sexually transmitted infection is targeted by Healthy People 2020 for complete eradication in the United States? 1 Syphilis 2 Chlamydia 3 Genital herpes 4 Human papilloma virus - Answers 1 Healthy People 2020 has the stated objective of completely eliminating syphilis in the United States. The goal regarding chlamydia is to reduce the proportion of young adults and adolescents with it by 10%. It has an objective to reduce the proportion of young adults with genital herpes due to herpes simplex type 2 by 10%. It has a goal of reducing the proportion of females with human papilloma virus but not to a specified target number. Which sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are vaginal infections? Select all that apply. 1 Syphilis 2 Proctitis 3 Chlamydia 4 Gonorrhea 5 Endometritis 6 Epididymitis - Answers 1,3,4 Chlamydia can be transmitted during vaginal, anal, or oral sex. Gonorrhea is spread through contact with the penis, vagina, mouth, or anus. Both gonorrhea and chlamydia can also be spread from an infected mother to her baby during vaginal childbirth. Syphilis is a bacterial infection usually spread by sexual contact which starts as a painless sore, typically on the genitals, rectum, or mouth. Syphilis spreads from person to person via skin or mucous membrane contact, such as vaginally. Endometritis is the infection of the innermost lining of the uterus (the endometrium). Epididymitis is an inflammation of the coiled tube (epididymis) at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm; pain and swelling are the most common signs and symptoms. Proctitis is an inflammation of the rectum that causes discomfort, bleeding, and occasionally, a discharge of mucus or pus. Which bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) would the nurse suspect if a laboratory examination of a specimen collected from a patient's indurate lesion revealed the presence of spirochete? 1 Syphilis 2 Chancroid 3 Chlamydia 4 Gonorrhea - Answers 1 Syphilis is an STI caused by a spirochete, Treponema pallidum. Chancroid is caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Haemophilus ducreyi. Chlamydia is an STI caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Chlamydia trachomatis. Gonorrhea is an STI caused by the gram-negative bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhea. Which information in a patient's medical history is associated with a risk for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select all that apply. 1 Smoking 2 Age 30 years 3 History of chlamydia 4 Multiple sexual partners 5 Intrauterine device (IUD) in place since last year - Answers 1,3,4 Having had a previous sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia, multiple sexual partners, and smoking put a patient at greater risk for PID. Being younger than 26 years and a recently placed IUD (within the previous 3 weeks not in place for a year) are additional risk factors for PID. Gonorrhea can potentially progress without warning and can commonly lead to which disorder in women? 1 Arthritis 2 Hepatitis 3 Meningitis 4 Endometritis - Answers 4 Endometritis is a common progression of gonorrhea. Meningitis, arthritis, and hepatitis can be the result of gonorrhea, but these occur rarely. Which type of human papilloma virus (HPV) is associated with a low risk for developing genital cancer? 1 HPV type 11 2 HPV type 16 3 HPV type 18 4 HPV type 31 - Answers 1 HPV types 6 and 11 are considered low-risk human papilloma virus. HPV types 16, 18, 31, 33, and 35 are considered high-risk human papilloma virus. These high-risk viruses can be found on genitalia and increase the risk for genital cancers. What is the drug of choice in the treatment of primary, secondary, and latent syphilis? 1 Doxycycline 2 Ceftriaxone 3 Azithromycin 4 Benzathine penicillin G - Answers 4 The drug of choice for treating primary, secondary, and latent syphilis is benzathine penicillin G. It is administered as a single intramuscular dose of 2.4 million-unit dose. A combination drug of doxycycline and azithromycin is used in the treatment of chlamydia infection. Ceftriaxone is used in the treatment of gonorrhea.Test-Taking Tip: You have at least a 25% chance of selecting the correct response in multiple-choice items. If you are uncertain about a question, eliminate the choices that you believe are wrong and then call on your knowledge, skills, and abilities to choose from the remaining responses. Which type of sexually transmitted infection has the risk of cervical cancer? 1 Syphilis 2 Gonorrhea 3 Herpes simplex virus infection (HSV) 4 Human papilloma virus infection (HPV) - Answers 4 HPV infection may lead to the formation of precancerous lesions in the genital area, especially the cervix. Syphilis, gonorrhea, and HSV infection are not associated with the risk of cervical cancer. What manifestations does the nurse expect to find on assessment in a patient with gonorrhea? Select all that apply. 1 Dysuria 2 Rectal bleeding 3 Dry, chapped lips 4 Blisters in the throat 5 Green vaginal discharge - Answers 1,2,4,5 The patient with gonorrhea has blisters in the throat, green vaginal discharge, dysuria, and rectal bleeding. The patient also has reddened throat, ulcerated lips, and tender gingivae. Though the infection can be asymptomatic, men can notice dysuria if symptoms are present. Dry, chapped lips are not a common symptom of gonorrhea. What does the nurse infer from a patient whose initial symptoms of genital herpes have subsided? 1 The virus is in an active state. 2 The infection has been cured. 3 The virus is in a dormant state. 4 There is now a decrease in viral shedding. - Answers 3 After symptoms subside from a primary infection of genital herpes, herpes simplex virus is still present in a dormant state in the sacral nerve ganglia. When the virus is in an active state, there may be a formation of blisters. Herpes simplex virus infection cannot be cured. A decrease in viral shedding in genital herpes indicates healing of the lesions.Test-Taking Tip: Multiple-choice questions can be challenging because students think that they will recognize the right answer when they see it or that the right answer will somehow stand out from the other choices. This is a dangerous misconception. The more carefully the question is constructed, the more each of the choices will seem like the correct response. The nurse is evaluating a patient's response to antibiotic treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective? 1 Increased libido 2 Increased appetite 3 Decreased pelvic tenderness 4 Decreased vaginal discharge - Answers 3 Pain management of PID begins with treatment of the infection. Antibiotic therapy relieves pain by decreasing the inflammation caused by infection. Vaginal discharge may be increased at first as the infection drains. Increased appetite and increased libido may be secondary findings but are not indicative of effective treatment.Test-Taking Tip: Do not read information into questions, and avoid speculating. Reading into questions creates errors in judgment. Which guidance would the nurse provide to a pregnant patient with a history of genital herpes? 1 There is a little risk for infection to the neonate. 2 A vaginal delivery reduces the transmission of infection to the neonate. 3 Presence of lesions during the third trimester may indicate a need for a caesarean delivery. 4 There is no need to abstain from sexual contact if the lesions are healed. - Answers 3 If a pregnant woman experiences formation of lesions during the third trimester, caesarean delivery is preferred to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission. There is a high risk of neonatal transmission if there is an outbreak during the pregnancy. Vaginal delivery increases the risk of neonatal transmission. Abstinence from sexual activity during pregnancy reduces the risk of complications to the neonate. What are the stages of genital herpes infection in their correct order of progression? 1. Small blisters occur on the genitals. 2. Blisters rupture, leaving a painful ulceration. 3. Fluid-filled clusters of blisters appear on the genitals. 4. Redness and bulging of the skin occurs on the genitals. 5. Active virus moves toward the skin, causing an outbreak. - Answers 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 The active virus moves toward the skin, causing an itching or tingling sensation that is called prodrome. The affected skin will turn red and bulge, and at this stage, the virus is highly contagious. The redness of the skin is usually followed by small blisters or vesicles. As the blisters grow, they will become filled with fluid and form clusters. These blisters rupture in a day or two, leaving a painful ulceration.Test-Taking Tip: In this question type, you are asked to prioritize (put in order) the options presented. For example, you might be asked the steps of performing an action or skill such as those involved in medication administration. Which statements are true about the vaccine Gardasil? Select all that apply. 1 The use of Gardasil is approved only for male adults. 2 Gardasil is preferred in immunocompromised patients. 3 Gardasil is encouraged for males who have sex with males. 4 Gardasil is recommended soon after the onset of sexual activity. 5 Gardasil provides immunity against human papilloma virus (HPV) types 6 and 11. - Answers 2,3,5 Gardasil is preferred in immunocompromised patients to protect them against the virus and other complications. This vaccine is encouraged for males who have sex with males to reduce the risk of acquiring HPV. It provides immunity against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18. Gardasil use is approved for both males and females under the age of 26 years. The vaccine is recommended before the onset of sexual activity in order to increase the effectiveness of the vaccine. What complications may result if a patient discontinues the treatment of chlamydia infection without completing the full course of antibiotics? Select all that apply. 1 Infertility 2 Meningitis 3 Endocarditis 4 Ectopic pregnancy 5 Pelvic inflammatory disease - Answers 1,4,5 Inadequate treatment resulting from discontinuation of therapy may make chlamydia infection persistent and resistant. As a result of reinfection or continuing chlamydia infection, the patient may have infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or pelvic inflammatory disease. Meningitis and endocarditis are not associated with chlamydia infection, but these are rare complications of gonorrhea infection. A patient diagnosed with genital warts asks the nurse how it can be treated. What does the nurse suggest? 1 Oral antibiotics 2 Liquid nitrogen 3 Topical antiviral cream 4 Human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine - Answers 2