CGSS EXAM COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS | ACTUAL EXAM 2025 TEST!!
GRADED A+ | 2026/2027 EXAM UPDATE.
DOMAIN 1: SANCTIONS LEGAL & REGULATORY FRAMEWORK (10 Questions)
1. Which U.S. statute grants the President the authority to declare a "National Emergency"
with respect to an unusual and extraordinary threat to the national security, foreign policy, or
economy of the United States, and subsequently block property?
A. The Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA)
B. The USA PATRIOT Act
C. The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA)
D. The Export Control Reform Act (ECRA)
Answer: C
[CORRECT]
Rationale: The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) grants the President the
authority to declare a national emergency and regulate or block transactions and freeze
assets to deal with an "unusual and extraordinary threat." The Trading with the Enemy Act
(TWEA) applies only during wartime or a declared national emergency specifically regarding
the U.S. armed forces. IEEPA is the primary statutory authority for most modern OFAC
sanctions programs (e.g., North Korea, Russia, Iran).
2. Under the "OFAC 50 Percent Rule," an entity is considered blocked if its aggregate
ownership by one or more Specially Designated Nationals (SDNs) meets or exceeds 50%. An
SDN ("Party A") owns 30% of Entity X. Another SDN ("Party B") owns 25% of Entity X. Neither
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Party A nor Party B is otherwise controlled by the other. What is the compliance status of
Entity X?
A. Entity X is not blocked because no single SDN owns 50% or more.
B. Entity X is blocked because the aggregate ownership by SDNs is 55%.
C. Entity X is not blocked because Party A and Party B are separate legal persons.
D. Entity X is blocked only if Party A and Party B are acting in concert.
Answer: B
[CORRECT]
Rationale: OFAC's 50 Percent Rule explicitly states that an entity is blocked if it is owned, in
the aggregate, 50 percent or more by one or more SDNs. Here, 30% (Party A) + 25% (Party B)
equals 55%. Because the aggregate ownership meets the threshold, Entity X is deemed
blocked by operation of law, regardless of whether the SDNs are acting in concert.
3. Which of the following acts by a non-U.S. financial institution would MOST likely trigger
jurisdiction under U.S. sanctions based on the "Causation" test?
A. Processing a transaction in a currency other than U.S. Dollars.
B. Using the SWIFT messaging system to send payment instructions that do not touch a U.S.
correspondent bank.
C. Processing a U.S. Dollar-denominated transaction that ultimately clears through a U.S.
financial institution, where the institution removes critical identifying information to hide the
involvement of a sanctioned party.
D. Maintaining a relationship with a foreign subsidiary of a U.S. company that is not itself an
SDN.
Answer: C
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[CORRECT]
Rationale: The "causation" test is central to enforcement actions against non-U.S. persons
(e.g., Standard Chartered or BNP Paribas cases). Jurisdiction exists when a non-U.S. person
causes a U.S. person to violate sanctions. By "stripping" or removing information to hide a
sanctioned party's involvement, the non-U.S. institution causes the U.S. correspondent bank
to process a transaction it would have otherwise rejected, thereby violating U.S. law.
4. (SATA) Which of the following are mandatory requirements for the President to exercise
authorities under IEEPA? (Select all that apply)
A. Declaration of a National Emergency.
B. Consultation with Congress.
C. A declaration of War by Congress.
D. Existence of an "unusual and extraordinary threat" to the United States.
Answers: A, B, D
[CORRECT]
Rationale: Under IEEPA (50 U.S.C. § 1701), the President may exercise powers only after
declaring a national emergency with respect to an "unusual and extraordinary threat" (A, D).
IEEPA requires the President to consult with Congress before exercising authorities (B). A
declaration of war is not required; IEEPA is utilized for peacetime emergencies, whereas TWEA
is the wartime statute.
5. (SATA) Under the Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA), which
of the following describes the mechanism of "Secondary Sanctions" on a foreign financial
institution? (Select all that apply)
A. They require the foreign institution to be cut off from the U.S. financial system.
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B. They mandate criminal prosecution of the foreign institution's board members in U.S.
courts.
C. They offer a "menu-based" approach where the executive branch selects from a list of
penalties to impose.
D. They can be imposed even if the transaction involved no U.S. persons or the U.S. financial
system.
Answers: A, C, D
[CORRECT]
Rationale: Secondary sanctions (specifically under CAATSA Section 231 or 235 regarding
Russia/Iran/North Korea) apply to non-U.S. persons engaging in certain "significant
transactions" with designated parties, even absent U.S. nexus (D). The Secretary of
State/Treasury is often given a "menu" of sanctions options (C), ranging from blocking
property to restricting access to the U.S. financial system (A). Secondary sanctions are
civil/administrative in nature, not criminal prosecutions of individuals (B is incorrect).
6. How does the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA) differ from IEEPA regarding the scope of
the President's authority?
A. TWEA requires a higher threshold of threat than IEEPA.
B. TWEA applies only during a declared war or national emergency relating to the U.S. armed
forces, whereas IEEPA applies to peacetime national emergencies.
C. IEEPA allows for the regulation of imports, while TWEA does not.
D. TWEA does not allow for the blocking of assets, only the regulation of trade.
Answer: B
[CORRECT]