NSG 3280 Exam 2 (Pathophysiology for Nurses)
Graded A+
Q1. Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiological mechanism of
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
• A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
• B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
• C. Excessive glucagon secretion
• D. Increased hepatic glucose production
Q2. A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to present with:
• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
• C. Jugular venous distension
• D. Ascites
Q3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with renal failure?
• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypomagnesemia
Q4. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the hallmark pathophysiological
change is:
• A. Restrictive lung disease with decreased compliance
• B. Airflow limitation due to chronic bronchitis and emphysema
• C. Acute alveolar damage
• D. Pulmonary embolism
Q5. Which of the following is the most common initial manifestation of multiple
sclerosis?
• A. Seizures
• B. Visual disturbances (optic neuritis)
• C. Dysphagia
• D. Hearing loss
Q6. Which lab finding is most consistent with iron-deficiency anemia?
, • A. Elevated ferritin
• B. Low hemoglobin and microcytic RBCs
• C. Increased MCV
• D. High serum iron
Q7. The hallmark sign of nephrotic syndrome is:
• A. Hematuria
• B. Massive proteinuria and edema
• C. Oliguria
• D. Hypertension
Q8. Which of the following is a common complication of chronic hypertension?
• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Hypocalcemia
Q9. In asthma, airway obstruction is primarily due to:
• A. Loss of alveolar elasticity
• B. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Surfactant deficiency
Q10. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?
• A. Excess dopamine in the basal ganglia
• B. Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra
• C. Increased acetylcholine activity
• D. Autoimmune demyelination
Q11. A patient with cirrhosis is at risk for:
• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Portal hypertension and ascites
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Q12. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in Addison’s disease?
• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
, • D. Hypercalcemia
Q13. The primary defect in cystic fibrosis is:
• A. Autoimmune destruction of alveoli
• B. Mutation in CFTR gene causing thick secretions
• C. Surfactant deficiency
• D. Viral infection of bronchioles
Q14. Which of the following is a classic sign of hypocalcemia?
• A. Bradycardia
• B. Positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria
Q15. Which condition is characterized by demyelination in the peripheral nervous
system?
• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Myasthenia gravis
• D. Parkinson’s disease
Q16. Which of the following is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease?
• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Helicobacter pylori infection
• C. Low-fat intake
• D. Hyperthyroidism
Q17. Which cardiac marker rises earliest after myocardial infarction?
• A. Troponin I
• B. Myoglobin
• C. CK-MB
• D. LDH
Q18. Which of the following is most associated with chronic kidney disease?
• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Anemia due to decreased erythropoietin
• C. Hyperthyroidism
• D. Increased surfactant production
Graded A+
Q1. Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiological mechanism of
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
• A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
• B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
• C. Excessive glucagon secretion
• D. Increased hepatic glucose production
Q2. A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to present with:
• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
• C. Jugular venous distension
• D. Ascites
Q3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with renal failure?
• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypomagnesemia
Q4. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the hallmark pathophysiological
change is:
• A. Restrictive lung disease with decreased compliance
• B. Airflow limitation due to chronic bronchitis and emphysema
• C. Acute alveolar damage
• D. Pulmonary embolism
Q5. Which of the following is the most common initial manifestation of multiple
sclerosis?
• A. Seizures
• B. Visual disturbances (optic neuritis)
• C. Dysphagia
• D. Hearing loss
Q6. Which lab finding is most consistent with iron-deficiency anemia?
, • A. Elevated ferritin
• B. Low hemoglobin and microcytic RBCs
• C. Increased MCV
• D. High serum iron
Q7. The hallmark sign of nephrotic syndrome is:
• A. Hematuria
• B. Massive proteinuria and edema
• C. Oliguria
• D. Hypertension
Q8. Which of the following is a common complication of chronic hypertension?
• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Hypocalcemia
Q9. In asthma, airway obstruction is primarily due to:
• A. Loss of alveolar elasticity
• B. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Surfactant deficiency
Q10. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?
• A. Excess dopamine in the basal ganglia
• B. Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra
• C. Increased acetylcholine activity
• D. Autoimmune demyelination
Q11. A patient with cirrhosis is at risk for:
• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Portal hypertension and ascites
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Q12. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in Addison’s disease?
• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
, • D. Hypercalcemia
Q13. The primary defect in cystic fibrosis is:
• A. Autoimmune destruction of alveoli
• B. Mutation in CFTR gene causing thick secretions
• C. Surfactant deficiency
• D. Viral infection of bronchioles
Q14. Which of the following is a classic sign of hypocalcemia?
• A. Bradycardia
• B. Positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria
Q15. Which condition is characterized by demyelination in the peripheral nervous
system?
• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Myasthenia gravis
• D. Parkinson’s disease
Q16. Which of the following is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease?
• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Helicobacter pylori infection
• C. Low-fat intake
• D. Hyperthyroidism
Q17. Which cardiac marker rises earliest after myocardial infarction?
• A. Troponin I
• B. Myoglobin
• C. CK-MB
• D. LDH
Q18. Which of the following is most associated with chronic kidney disease?
• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Anemia due to decreased erythropoietin
• C. Hyperthyroidism
• D. Increased surfactant production
