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FNP654 | FNP654 Family Primary Care II Midterm Exam Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

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FNP654 | FNP654 Family Primary Care II Midterm Exam Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

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FNP654 | FNP654 Family Primary Care II Midterm
v1 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question
1. A 10-year-old female presents for a well-child visit. Upon examination, you note the

appearance of breast buds and sparse, straight pubic hair. Which Tanner stage does

this represent?

A. Stage II


B. Stage I


C. Stage III


D. Stage IV


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Tanner Stage II in females is characterized by the initial

development of breast buds and the appearance of sparse pubic hair. Stage I

represents the prepubertal state with no glandular tissue. Identifying these stages is

essential for tracking normal pubertal development in pediatric patients.


2. Which of the following is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated

Acute Otitis Media (AOM) in a child with no penicillin allergy?

A. Azithromycin


B. Cephalexin

,C. Amoxicillin


D. Ciprofloxacin


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Amoxicillin remains the first-line treatment for AOM due to its

effectiveness against common pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae. The

standard high-dose is typically 80-90 mg/kg/day divided into two doses. Providers

must assess for penicillin allergies and recent antibiotic use before prescribing.


3. An 8-month-old infant is brought in for a cough and wheezing. The diagnosis is

bronchiolitis. What is the primary management strategy for mild cases?

A. Oral corticosteroids


B. Albuterol nebulizer treatments


C. Supportive care with hydration and suctioning


D. Empiric antibiotics


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Management of mild bronchiolitis is primarily supportive,

focusing on maintaining hydration and clearing nasal passages. Current guidelines

do not recommend routine use of bronchodilators or steroids for first-time

,episodes. Most cases are viral, specifically caused by RSV, making antibiotics

ineffective.


4. According to the GINA guidelines, a patient who experiences asthma symptoms 3

times a week and wakes up at night twice a month falls into which category?

A. Intermittent


B. Severe Persistent


C. Moderate Persistent


D. Mild Persistent


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: Mild persistent asthma is defined by symptoms occurring

more than twice a week but not daily, with nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a

month. This classification helps guide the initiation of daily controller medications

such as low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. Accurate staging ensures that the patient

receives appropriate step-up therapy according to evidence-based protocols.


5. At what age should a child typically be able to sit without support and begin to

crawl?

A. 4 months


B. 6 months

, C. 9 months


D. 12 months


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: By 9 months of age, most infants can sit well without support

and are beginning to creep or crawl. They also develop the pincer grasp around this

time, allowing them to pick up small objects. Developmental screenings at this age

are critical to identifying delays early for intervention.


6. A 15-month-old child should be able to perform which of the following gross motor

skills?

A. Walk independently


B. Run steadily


C. Jump with both feet


D. Ride a tricycle


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: The milestone for walking independently is typically achieved

between 12 and 15 months. While some children walk earlier, failure to walk by 18

months warrants further evaluation. Clinicians should observe the child’s gait and

balance during the well-child visit.

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