CRCR Certification Exam: 100+ Practice Questions &
Answers (Certified Revenue Cycle Representative).instant
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The CRCR program covers four main units :
1. Unit 1: Revenue Cycle in Health Care – Overview of the revenue cycle, key
performance indicators, and regulatory environment
2. Unit 2: Pre-Service – Financial Care – Scheduling, pre-registration, insurance
verification, medical necessity, financial assistance
3. Unit 3: Time of Service – Financial Care – Patient identification, point-of-service
collections, financial discussions
4. Unit 4: Post-Service – Financial Care – Claims processing, denials management,
appeals, payment posting, bad debt
Section 1: Patient Access & Registration (Questions 1–15)
1. What is the primary purpose of patient pre-registration?
A) To collect payment in full before service
B) To verify insurance eligibility and benefits in advance of service
C) To schedule the patient's follow-up appointment
D) To complete all clinical documentation
Answer: B) To verify insurance eligibility and benefits in advance of service
Pre-registration is a proactive step to gather demographic and insurance information, verify
coverage, identify patient responsibility, and address potential issues before the day of
service .
2. Which two patient identifiers are required during registration per The Joint Commission?
A) Patient name and social security number
B) Patient name and date of birth
C) Patient address and phone number
D) Insurance ID and group number
,Answer: B) Patient name and date of birth
Using at least two patient identifiers (most commonly full name and date of birth) is a
National Patient Safety Goal to prevent medical record mix-ups and ensure billing
accuracy .
3. What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN)?
A) A form for patients to assign benefits to the provider
B) A form that informs a Medicare patient they may be financially responsible for a service
Medicare is not expected to cover
C) A form that guarantees Medicare will pay for a service
D) A form used to verify a patient's identity
Answer: B) A form that informs a Medicare patient they may be financially
responsible for a service Medicare is not expected to cover
* The ABN (Form CMS-R-131) allows patients to make an informed decision about
receiving a service that Medicare may not cover. If signed, the patient agrees to pay if
Medicare denies the claim .*
4. What does EMTALA require hospitals to do?
A) Collect payment before providing emergency care
B) Verify insurance before treatment
C) Provide medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment regardless of ability to
pay
D) Obtain prior authorization for all emergency services
Answer: C) Provide medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment
regardless of ability to pay
EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) mandates that hospitals provide
emergency medical screening and stabilizing treatment to any patient, regardless of
insurance status or ability to pay .
5. Under EMTALA, registration staff may NOT ask about insurance information if it would
delay:
A) Discharge planning
,B) Medical screening and stabilizing treatment
C) Prior authorization
D) Patient registration
Answer: B) Medical screening and stabilizing treatment
A violation occurs if registration staff delay the medical screening exam to collect insurance
information or obtain prior authorizations .
6. What is a recurring or series registration?
A) Multiple registrations for the same patient on the same day
B) One registration record created for multiple days of service
C) Registration that occurs only in the emergency department
D) Registration repeated every 30 days
Answer: B) One registration record created for multiple days of service
Recurring/series registration creates a single registration record for services provided over
multiple days, such as physical therapy or chemotherapy series .
7. What are nonemergency patients who come for service without prior notification called?
A) Scheduled patients
B) Walk-in patients
C) Unscheduled patients
D) Direct admissions
Answer: C) Unscheduled patients
Unscheduled patients arrive without prior notification and require immediate registration at
the time of service .
8. An unscheduled "direct" admission represents a patient who:
A) Arrives by ambulance to the emergency department
B) Is admitted from a physician's office on an urgent basis
C) Is transferred from another hospital
D) Schedules admission online
Answer: B) Is admitted from a physician's office on an urgent basis
, Direct admissions come from physician offices without prior hospital registration and
require immediate processing .
9. What information is critical to collect during emergency department registration?
A) Full insurance history
B) Patient's name, DOB, chief complaint, and time of arrival
C) Employer information and income
D) Primary care physician referral
Answer: B) Patient's name, DOB, chief complaint, and time of arrival
In the ED, only essential information is collected first; full registration can be completed
later if necessary .
10. The core financial activities resolved within patient access include all EXCEPT:
A) Scheduling
B) Pre-registration
C) Insurance verification
D) Clinical treatment decisions
Answer: D) Clinical treatment decisions
Patient access handles scheduling, pre-registration, insurance verification, and managed
care processing, but clinical decisions are made by providers .
11. Accurate identification of the patient is the first step in scheduling. Identifiers used
include:
A) Name, date of birth, address, and telephone number
B) Date of birth, social security number, and sex
C) Full legal name, date of birth, sex, and social security number
D) Full legal name, ordering physician, and insurance ID
Answer: C) Full legal name, date of birth, sex, and social security number
Multiple identifiers ensure accurate patient matching and prevent duplicate medical
records .
Answers (Certified Revenue Cycle Representative).instant
pdf download
The CRCR program covers four main units :
1. Unit 1: Revenue Cycle in Health Care – Overview of the revenue cycle, key
performance indicators, and regulatory environment
2. Unit 2: Pre-Service – Financial Care – Scheduling, pre-registration, insurance
verification, medical necessity, financial assistance
3. Unit 3: Time of Service – Financial Care – Patient identification, point-of-service
collections, financial discussions
4. Unit 4: Post-Service – Financial Care – Claims processing, denials management,
appeals, payment posting, bad debt
Section 1: Patient Access & Registration (Questions 1–15)
1. What is the primary purpose of patient pre-registration?
A) To collect payment in full before service
B) To verify insurance eligibility and benefits in advance of service
C) To schedule the patient's follow-up appointment
D) To complete all clinical documentation
Answer: B) To verify insurance eligibility and benefits in advance of service
Pre-registration is a proactive step to gather demographic and insurance information, verify
coverage, identify patient responsibility, and address potential issues before the day of
service .
2. Which two patient identifiers are required during registration per The Joint Commission?
A) Patient name and social security number
B) Patient name and date of birth
C) Patient address and phone number
D) Insurance ID and group number
,Answer: B) Patient name and date of birth
Using at least two patient identifiers (most commonly full name and date of birth) is a
National Patient Safety Goal to prevent medical record mix-ups and ensure billing
accuracy .
3. What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN)?
A) A form for patients to assign benefits to the provider
B) A form that informs a Medicare patient they may be financially responsible for a service
Medicare is not expected to cover
C) A form that guarantees Medicare will pay for a service
D) A form used to verify a patient's identity
Answer: B) A form that informs a Medicare patient they may be financially
responsible for a service Medicare is not expected to cover
* The ABN (Form CMS-R-131) allows patients to make an informed decision about
receiving a service that Medicare may not cover. If signed, the patient agrees to pay if
Medicare denies the claim .*
4. What does EMTALA require hospitals to do?
A) Collect payment before providing emergency care
B) Verify insurance before treatment
C) Provide medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment regardless of ability to
pay
D) Obtain prior authorization for all emergency services
Answer: C) Provide medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment
regardless of ability to pay
EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) mandates that hospitals provide
emergency medical screening and stabilizing treatment to any patient, regardless of
insurance status or ability to pay .
5. Under EMTALA, registration staff may NOT ask about insurance information if it would
delay:
A) Discharge planning
,B) Medical screening and stabilizing treatment
C) Prior authorization
D) Patient registration
Answer: B) Medical screening and stabilizing treatment
A violation occurs if registration staff delay the medical screening exam to collect insurance
information or obtain prior authorizations .
6. What is a recurring or series registration?
A) Multiple registrations for the same patient on the same day
B) One registration record created for multiple days of service
C) Registration that occurs only in the emergency department
D) Registration repeated every 30 days
Answer: B) One registration record created for multiple days of service
Recurring/series registration creates a single registration record for services provided over
multiple days, such as physical therapy or chemotherapy series .
7. What are nonemergency patients who come for service without prior notification called?
A) Scheduled patients
B) Walk-in patients
C) Unscheduled patients
D) Direct admissions
Answer: C) Unscheduled patients
Unscheduled patients arrive without prior notification and require immediate registration at
the time of service .
8. An unscheduled "direct" admission represents a patient who:
A) Arrives by ambulance to the emergency department
B) Is admitted from a physician's office on an urgent basis
C) Is transferred from another hospital
D) Schedules admission online
Answer: B) Is admitted from a physician's office on an urgent basis
, Direct admissions come from physician offices without prior hospital registration and
require immediate processing .
9. What information is critical to collect during emergency department registration?
A) Full insurance history
B) Patient's name, DOB, chief complaint, and time of arrival
C) Employer information and income
D) Primary care physician referral
Answer: B) Patient's name, DOB, chief complaint, and time of arrival
In the ED, only essential information is collected first; full registration can be completed
later if necessary .
10. The core financial activities resolved within patient access include all EXCEPT:
A) Scheduling
B) Pre-registration
C) Insurance verification
D) Clinical treatment decisions
Answer: D) Clinical treatment decisions
Patient access handles scheduling, pre-registration, insurance verification, and managed
care processing, but clinical decisions are made by providers .
11. Accurate identification of the patient is the first step in scheduling. Identifiers used
include:
A) Name, date of birth, address, and telephone number
B) Date of birth, social security number, and sex
C) Full legal name, date of birth, sex, and social security number
D) Full legal name, ordering physician, and insurance ID
Answer: C) Full legal name, date of birth, sex, and social security number
Multiple identifiers ensure accurate patient matching and prevent duplicate medical
records .
