ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
– NGN - (60 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE
SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF
DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI)
CANDIDATE INFORMATION
Name: ________________________________
Candidate ID: _________________________
Date: ________________________________
Examination Centre: ___________________
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
This proctored maternal-newborn nursing assessment evaluates clinical
judgment, prioritization, and evidence-based care across antepartum,
intrapartum, postpartum, and neonatal phases. You are required to
demonstrate safe clinical decision-making aligned with Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) standards, including cue recognition, analysis, prioritization,
and evaluation. The exam consists of approximately 60 questions to be
completed within 90 minutes. Read each question carefully, select the best
answer, and apply clinical reasoning principles. Some questions are scenario-
based and require deeper analysis. No external materials are permitted.
COVER PAGE DETAILS
Candidate Instructions:
• Read each question thoroughly before answering.
• Select the most appropriate response based on clinical judgment.
• Manage your time efficiently (approximately 1.5 minutes per question).
• Ensure all answers are recorded clearly.
• Maintain exam integrity and confidentiality at all times.
, Core Domains:
• Antepartum Care
• Intrapartum & Labor Management
• Postpartum Care
• Newborn Assessment & Care
• Complications & High-Risk Conditions
• Pharmacological & Therapeutic Interventions
Disclaimer:
This is a simulated examination designed for educational purposes only. It is not
affiliated with or an actual ATI examination.
This examination is designed to assess advanced maternal-newborn nursing
competencies, including physiological adaptations, fetal monitoring
interpretation, labor progression, postpartum recovery, and neonatal
stabilization. Candidates must integrate theoretical knowledge with clinical
judgment to ensure optimal outcomes for both mother and newborn. Mastery
of these competencies reflects readiness for professional nursing practice in
maternal-child health settings.
Q1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation who reports sudden
painless vaginal bleeding. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: A. Placenta previa
Explanation: 🟡 Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the second or third trimester. Placental abruption typically causes
painful bleeding with uterine tenderness. Uterine rupture is associated with
severe pain and fetal distress. Vasa previa involves fetal vessel rupture and
leads to rapid fetal compromise.
Q2. A nurse is reviewing fetal heart rate tracing and notes recurrent late
decelerations. What is the priority intervention?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
,B. Reposition client to left lateral
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Encourage pushing
Correct Answer: B. Reposition client to left lateral
Explanation: 🟡 Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
Repositioning improves placental perfusion. Increasing fluids is helpful but
secondary. Oxytocin may worsen decelerations. Pushing is inappropriate unless
fully dilated.
Q3. A postpartum client reports severe perineal pain and pressure. The nurse
observes a firm uterus with excessive swelling in the perineum. What is the
likely cause?
A. Hematoma
B. Infection
C. Uterine atony
D. Retained placenta
Correct Answer: A. Hematoma
Explanation: 🟡 A hematoma presents with severe localized pain and swelling
despite a firm uterus. Infection involves fever and discharge. Uterine atony
causes bleeding with a boggy uterus. Retained placenta leads to continued
bleeding.
Q4. A nurse is caring for a newborn with a respiratory rate of 70/min, nasal
flaring, and grunting. What condition is most likely?
A. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: C. Respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation: 🟡 RDS is characterized by tachypnea, grunting, and nasal flaring
due to surfactant deficiency. TTN is milder and resolves quickly. Meconium
aspiration includes coarse breath sounds. Pneumonia includes infection signs.
Q5. A nurse is assessing a client in labor and notes contractions every 2 minutes
lasting 90 seconds. What complication should the nurse suspect?
, A. Hypotonic labor
B. Hypertonic labor
C. Tachysystole
D. Normal labor progression
Correct Answer: C. Tachysystole
Explanation: 🟡 Tachysystole is excessive uterine activity (more than 5
contractions in 10 minutes), risking fetal distress. Hypotonic labor is weak
contractions. Hypertonic labor involves uncoordinated contractions early in
labor.
Q6. A client at 38 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority
action?
A. Reassure client
B. Perform nonstress test
C. Encourage hydration
D. Schedule induction
Correct Answer: B. Perform nonstress test
Explanation: 🟡 Decreased fetal movement requires immediate fetal assessment.
NST evaluates fetal well-being. Reassurance delays care. Hydration is
supportive but not priority. Induction depends on findings.
Q7. A nurse administers magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia.
Which finding indicates toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate 10/min
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Reflexes +2
D. BP 140/90
Correct Answer: A. Respiratory rate 10/min
Explanation: 🟡 Respiratory depression (<12/min) indicates magnesium toxicity.
Normal urine output is >30 mL/hr. Reflexes diminish in toxicity. BP alone is not
a toxicity indicator.
Q8. A nurse is teaching breastfeeding. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should feed every 6 hours."
– NGN - (60 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE
SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF
DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI)
CANDIDATE INFORMATION
Name: ________________________________
Candidate ID: _________________________
Date: ________________________________
Examination Centre: ___________________
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
This proctored maternal-newborn nursing assessment evaluates clinical
judgment, prioritization, and evidence-based care across antepartum,
intrapartum, postpartum, and neonatal phases. You are required to
demonstrate safe clinical decision-making aligned with Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) standards, including cue recognition, analysis, prioritization,
and evaluation. The exam consists of approximately 60 questions to be
completed within 90 minutes. Read each question carefully, select the best
answer, and apply clinical reasoning principles. Some questions are scenario-
based and require deeper analysis. No external materials are permitted.
COVER PAGE DETAILS
Candidate Instructions:
• Read each question thoroughly before answering.
• Select the most appropriate response based on clinical judgment.
• Manage your time efficiently (approximately 1.5 minutes per question).
• Ensure all answers are recorded clearly.
• Maintain exam integrity and confidentiality at all times.
, Core Domains:
• Antepartum Care
• Intrapartum & Labor Management
• Postpartum Care
• Newborn Assessment & Care
• Complications & High-Risk Conditions
• Pharmacological & Therapeutic Interventions
Disclaimer:
This is a simulated examination designed for educational purposes only. It is not
affiliated with or an actual ATI examination.
This examination is designed to assess advanced maternal-newborn nursing
competencies, including physiological adaptations, fetal monitoring
interpretation, labor progression, postpartum recovery, and neonatal
stabilization. Candidates must integrate theoretical knowledge with clinical
judgment to ensure optimal outcomes for both mother and newborn. Mastery
of these competencies reflects readiness for professional nursing practice in
maternal-child health settings.
Q1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation who reports sudden
painless vaginal bleeding. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: A. Placenta previa
Explanation: 🟡 Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the second or third trimester. Placental abruption typically causes
painful bleeding with uterine tenderness. Uterine rupture is associated with
severe pain and fetal distress. Vasa previa involves fetal vessel rupture and
leads to rapid fetal compromise.
Q2. A nurse is reviewing fetal heart rate tracing and notes recurrent late
decelerations. What is the priority intervention?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
,B. Reposition client to left lateral
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Encourage pushing
Correct Answer: B. Reposition client to left lateral
Explanation: 🟡 Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
Repositioning improves placental perfusion. Increasing fluids is helpful but
secondary. Oxytocin may worsen decelerations. Pushing is inappropriate unless
fully dilated.
Q3. A postpartum client reports severe perineal pain and pressure. The nurse
observes a firm uterus with excessive swelling in the perineum. What is the
likely cause?
A. Hematoma
B. Infection
C. Uterine atony
D. Retained placenta
Correct Answer: A. Hematoma
Explanation: 🟡 A hematoma presents with severe localized pain and swelling
despite a firm uterus. Infection involves fever and discharge. Uterine atony
causes bleeding with a boggy uterus. Retained placenta leads to continued
bleeding.
Q4. A nurse is caring for a newborn with a respiratory rate of 70/min, nasal
flaring, and grunting. What condition is most likely?
A. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: C. Respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation: 🟡 RDS is characterized by tachypnea, grunting, and nasal flaring
due to surfactant deficiency. TTN is milder and resolves quickly. Meconium
aspiration includes coarse breath sounds. Pneumonia includes infection signs.
Q5. A nurse is assessing a client in labor and notes contractions every 2 minutes
lasting 90 seconds. What complication should the nurse suspect?
, A. Hypotonic labor
B. Hypertonic labor
C. Tachysystole
D. Normal labor progression
Correct Answer: C. Tachysystole
Explanation: 🟡 Tachysystole is excessive uterine activity (more than 5
contractions in 10 minutes), risking fetal distress. Hypotonic labor is weak
contractions. Hypertonic labor involves uncoordinated contractions early in
labor.
Q6. A client at 38 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority
action?
A. Reassure client
B. Perform nonstress test
C. Encourage hydration
D. Schedule induction
Correct Answer: B. Perform nonstress test
Explanation: 🟡 Decreased fetal movement requires immediate fetal assessment.
NST evaluates fetal well-being. Reassurance delays care. Hydration is
supportive but not priority. Induction depends on findings.
Q7. A nurse administers magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia.
Which finding indicates toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate 10/min
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Reflexes +2
D. BP 140/90
Correct Answer: A. Respiratory rate 10/min
Explanation: 🟡 Respiratory depression (<12/min) indicates magnesium toxicity.
Normal urine output is >30 mL/hr. Reflexes diminish in toxicity. BP alone is not
a toxicity indicator.
Q8. A nurse is teaching breastfeeding. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should feed every 6 hours."
