NUR2392 / NUR 2392 Final Exam: Multidimensional Care II /
MDC 2 – Rasmussen Actual Exam Complete Questions &
Answers | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Managing Chronic Illness Across the Lifespan
Q1: A 68-year-old patient with COPD tells you they've been using their albuterol inhaler
"about six times a day" for the past week because their shortness of breath has
worsened. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "That sounds like you're managing your symptoms well—keep using it as needed."
B. "You should switch to your corticosteroid inhaler instead until your breathing
improves."
C. "Using your rescue inhaler that often means your COPD isn't well-controlled right now,
and we need to let your provider know so we can adjust your maintenance medications."
[CORRECT]
D. "Albuterol can cause heart problems, so you need to stop using it completely."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This choice is correct because frequent rescue inhaler
use is a red flag for poor COPD control, not a sign the patient is managing well.
Remember from MDC 2 that increased short-acting bronchodilator use indicates
,disease exacerbation or progression, and the nurse's role is to advocate for a
medication review rather than just managing symptoms at home.
Q2: A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with heart failure about daily weight
monitoring. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this teaching?
A. "I'll weigh myself after I eat breakfast every morning."
B. "If I gain 2 pounds in one day, I should call my doctor right away."
C. "I need to use the same scale, at the same time, wearing similar clothing, and report a
gain of 2–3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week." [CORRECT]
D. "Weight gain is normal with heart failure, so I only need to worry if I gain more than 10
pounds."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This choice is correct because consistent daily weights
with the same scale, same time, and similar clothing give the most accurate trend data,
and the 2–3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week threshold is the standard teaching
we give heart failure patients to catch fluid retention early. This matches what we teach
about self-monitoring being one of the most important things patients can do to stay
out of the hospital.
Q3: A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a fasting blood glucose of 142 mg/dL at
0700. Their bedtime snack was a slice of whole wheat toast with peanut butter at 2200,
and they took their prescribed metformin at 0800 the previous morning. What is this
reading most likely an example of?
A. The Somogyi effect from too much insulin
,B. The dawn phenomenon from early morning hormone surges [CORRECT]
C. Hypoglycemia unawareness from long-standing diabetes
D. A normal expected fasting range for a diabetic patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because the dawn phenomenon
is caused by early morning surges of cortisol and growth hormone that raise blood
glucose, and it's very common in type 2 diabetics even when they've had a reasonable
bedtime snack and taken their oral medications as prescribed. Remember from MDC 2
that this is different from the Somogyi effect, which involves rebound hyperglycemia
after nighttime hypoglycemia and is more relevant to insulin users.
Q4: A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 asks why the doctor keeps talking
about their phosphorus level. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "High phosphorus can pull calcium out of your bones and lead to bone disease and
itching." [CORRECT]
B. "Phosphorus is only a problem if you also have high potassium levels."
C. "Low phosphorus is what damages your kidneys, so we need to keep it up."
D. "Phosphorus mainly affects your blood pressure, which is why we monitor it."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. This choice is correct because in CKD, the kidneys can't
excrete phosphorus effectively, so it builds up and binds with calcium, leading to bone
demineralization and those awful itchy skin symptoms our CKD patients complain
, about. This aligns with the nursing priority of helping patients understand why we
restrict phosphorus-rich foods and why they might need phosphate binders with meals.
Q5: A 54-year-old patient with hypertension reports they stopped taking their lisinopril
because it was making them cough. Which response by the nurse demonstrates best
understanding of ACE inhibitor side effects?
A. "That cough is a sign of heart failure getting worse—you need to start taking it again
immediately."
B. "A dry, nonproductive cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, and there are
other medication classes your provider can switch you to." [CORRECT]
C. "All blood pressure medications cause a cough, so you'll just have to get used to it."
D. "The cough means you're allergic to lisinopril and should never take any blood
pressure medication again."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because that dry, tickly cough is
one of the most common reasons patients stop taking ACE inhibitors, and it's not an
allergy—it's related to bradykinin accumulation. Remember from MDC 2 that ARBs like
losartan are great alternatives since they don't have that side effect, and patients
shouldn't just quit their antihypertensive without talking to their provider first.
Q6: A patient with COPD is being discharged home on 2L nasal cannula oxygen. During
discharge teaching, which statement by the patient requires follow-up by the nurse?
A. "I'll keep the oxygen away from open flames and not smoke while it's running."
MDC 2 – Rasmussen Actual Exam Complete Questions &
Answers | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Managing Chronic Illness Across the Lifespan
Q1: A 68-year-old patient with COPD tells you they've been using their albuterol inhaler
"about six times a day" for the past week because their shortness of breath has
worsened. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "That sounds like you're managing your symptoms well—keep using it as needed."
B. "You should switch to your corticosteroid inhaler instead until your breathing
improves."
C. "Using your rescue inhaler that often means your COPD isn't well-controlled right now,
and we need to let your provider know so we can adjust your maintenance medications."
[CORRECT]
D. "Albuterol can cause heart problems, so you need to stop using it completely."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This choice is correct because frequent rescue inhaler
use is a red flag for poor COPD control, not a sign the patient is managing well.
Remember from MDC 2 that increased short-acting bronchodilator use indicates
,disease exacerbation or progression, and the nurse's role is to advocate for a
medication review rather than just managing symptoms at home.
Q2: A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with heart failure about daily weight
monitoring. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this teaching?
A. "I'll weigh myself after I eat breakfast every morning."
B. "If I gain 2 pounds in one day, I should call my doctor right away."
C. "I need to use the same scale, at the same time, wearing similar clothing, and report a
gain of 2–3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week." [CORRECT]
D. "Weight gain is normal with heart failure, so I only need to worry if I gain more than 10
pounds."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This choice is correct because consistent daily weights
with the same scale, same time, and similar clothing give the most accurate trend data,
and the 2–3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week threshold is the standard teaching
we give heart failure patients to catch fluid retention early. This matches what we teach
about self-monitoring being one of the most important things patients can do to stay
out of the hospital.
Q3: A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a fasting blood glucose of 142 mg/dL at
0700. Their bedtime snack was a slice of whole wheat toast with peanut butter at 2200,
and they took their prescribed metformin at 0800 the previous morning. What is this
reading most likely an example of?
A. The Somogyi effect from too much insulin
,B. The dawn phenomenon from early morning hormone surges [CORRECT]
C. Hypoglycemia unawareness from long-standing diabetes
D. A normal expected fasting range for a diabetic patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because the dawn phenomenon
is caused by early morning surges of cortisol and growth hormone that raise blood
glucose, and it's very common in type 2 diabetics even when they've had a reasonable
bedtime snack and taken their oral medications as prescribed. Remember from MDC 2
that this is different from the Somogyi effect, which involves rebound hyperglycemia
after nighttime hypoglycemia and is more relevant to insulin users.
Q4: A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 asks why the doctor keeps talking
about their phosphorus level. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "High phosphorus can pull calcium out of your bones and lead to bone disease and
itching." [CORRECT]
B. "Phosphorus is only a problem if you also have high potassium levels."
C. "Low phosphorus is what damages your kidneys, so we need to keep it up."
D. "Phosphorus mainly affects your blood pressure, which is why we monitor it."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. This choice is correct because in CKD, the kidneys can't
excrete phosphorus effectively, so it builds up and binds with calcium, leading to bone
demineralization and those awful itchy skin symptoms our CKD patients complain
, about. This aligns with the nursing priority of helping patients understand why we
restrict phosphorus-rich foods and why they might need phosphate binders with meals.
Q5: A 54-year-old patient with hypertension reports they stopped taking their lisinopril
because it was making them cough. Which response by the nurse demonstrates best
understanding of ACE inhibitor side effects?
A. "That cough is a sign of heart failure getting worse—you need to start taking it again
immediately."
B. "A dry, nonproductive cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, and there are
other medication classes your provider can switch you to." [CORRECT]
C. "All blood pressure medications cause a cough, so you'll just have to get used to it."
D. "The cough means you're allergic to lisinopril and should never take any blood
pressure medication again."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because that dry, tickly cough is
one of the most common reasons patients stop taking ACE inhibitors, and it's not an
allergy—it's related to bradykinin accumulation. Remember from MDC 2 that ARBs like
losartan are great alternatives since they don't have that side effect, and patients
shouldn't just quit their antihypertensive without talking to their provider first.
Q6: A patient with COPD is being discharged home on 2L nasal cannula oxygen. During
discharge teaching, which statement by the patient requires follow-up by the nurse?
A. "I'll keep the oxygen away from open flames and not smoke while it's running."
