Keiser University
Course Code: NUR2421C
Course Title: Maternity Nursing Care
Credit Hours:8.0
Exam: Final Exam
Date:2026
Multiple Choice Questions
• A 28-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and
BP 168/112 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. Which immediate nursing action best
prioritizes maternal and fetal safety?
Options: A. Administer oral labetalol and discharge home with follow-up; B. Initiate
magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, give IV antihypertensive per protocol, and
prepare for expedited delivery planning; C. Start oral nifedipine and allow ambulation; D.
Delay treatment until repeat BP in 4 hours
Answer: B. Initiate magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, give IV
antihypertensive per protocol, and prepare for expedited delivery planning
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with end-organ signs) requires seizure
prophylaxis (magnesium sulfate), rapid BP control, and delivery planning because delivery
is definitive treatment; outpatient management is unsafe.
• A 34-year-old with preterm labor at 30 weeks receives a tocolytic and corticosteroids. She
has a history of asthma controlled with inhalers. Which tocolytic is relatively
contraindicated and why?
Options: A. Nifedipine because it causes hypotension; B. Terbutaline because
beta-agonists can exacerbate maternal tachycardia and cause pulmonary edema, especially
risky in cardiac or pulmonary disease; C. Indomethacin because it causes oligohydramnios;
D. Magnesium sulfate because it is teratogenic
Answer: B. Terbutaline because beta-agonists can exacerbate maternal tachycardia
and cause pulmonary edema, especially risky in cardiac or pulmonary disease
Rationale: Terbutaline (beta-agonist) has systemic cardiovascular and pulmonary side
effects; in patients with cardiac or pulmonary comorbidity, risks often outweigh benefits.
Magnesium sulfate is used for neuroprotection and seizure prophylaxis, not teratogenic.
• A 29-year-old in active labor has a prolonged second stage and the fetal heart tracing shows
recurrent late decelerations. The obstetrician requests immediate preparation for operative
delivery. Which nursing interventions are highest priority while preparing for cesarean
delivery?
Options: A. Continue routine monitoring and delay communication; B. Initiate maternal
repositioning to left lateral, give oxygen, start IV bolus, notify anesthesia and OR team, and
prepare for urgent cesarean; C. Administer oral analgesic and wait for spontaneous change;
1
, D. Remove fetal monitor and rely on intermittent auscultation
Answer: B. Initiate maternal repositioning to left lateral, give oxygen, start IV bolus,
notify anesthesia and OR team, and prepare for urgent cesarean
Rationale: Recurrent late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency; immediate
intrauterine resuscitation (positioning, oxygen, IV fluids) and rapid escalation to operative
delivery if no improvement are essential.
• A 32-year-old with a history of prior classical cesarean is now in labor and requests a trial
of labor after cesarean (TOLAC). Which factor most increases the risk of uterine rupture
and should be discussed during counseling?
Options: A. Prior low transverse cesarean only; B. Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision
and induction with oxytocin or prostaglandins; C. Maternal age under 25; D. Multiparity
Answer: B. Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision and induction with oxytocin or
prostaglandins
Rationale: Classical (vertical) uterine incisions carry higher rupture risk;
induction/augmentation increases uterine stress. These are key contraindications or
cautionary factors for TOLAC.
• A 38-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks has a posterior shoulder dystocia during vaginal delivery.
Which immediate maneuver should the nurse assist with first to relieve the dystocia?
Options: A. Apply fundal pressure; B. McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure and
prepare for episiotomy if needed; C. Pull on the fetal head to deliver the shoulder; D. Place
mother in Trendelenburg position only
Answer: B. McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure and prepare for
episiotomy if needed
Rationale: McRoberts (maternal hyperflexion of hips) plus suprapubic pressure is first-line
for shoulder dystocia; fundal pressure and traction on the head are contraindicated due to
risk of fetal injury.
• A 26-year-old with prolonged rupture of membranes (PROM) at 38 weeks has a fever and
fetal tachycardia. Which diagnosis and immediate nursing action are most appropriate?
Options: A. Group B strep colonization; observe only; B. Chorioamnionitis; start
broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and prepare for expedited delivery; C. Normal labor;
continue routine care; D. Maternal dehydration; give oral fluids only
Answer: B. Chorioamnionitis; start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and prepare for
expedited delivery
Rationale: Maternal fever, fetal tachycardia, and PROM suggest intraamniotic infection;
prompt IV antibiotics and delivery (depending on labor status) reduce maternal and
neonatal morbidity.
• A 30-year-old with gestational diabetes controlled on insulin presents in labor. Which
neonatal risk is most important to anticipate and communicate to the pediatric team?
Options: A. Neonatal hypoglycemia due to fetal hyperinsulinemia; B. Neonatal
hyperglycemia; C. No special risks; D. Increased risk of congenital heart defects only
Answer: A. Neonatal hypoglycemia due to fetal hyperinsulinemia
Rationale: Maternal hyperglycemia stimulates fetal insulin production; after birth, loss of
maternal glucose supply can cause neonatal hypoglycemia—anticipate early glucose
monitoring and feeding.
• A 35-year-old with placenta previa at 36 weeks is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding.
Which plan is safest for maternal and fetal care?
Options: A. Perform immediate vaginal exam to assess dilation; B. Avoid digital vaginal
exam, stabilize hemodynamics, obtain type and cross, and plan cesarean delivery if
bleeding persists or placenta covers cervix; C. Start oxytocin infusion to stop bleeding; D.
Discharge home with pelvic rest only
2
, Answer: B. Avoid digital vaginal exam, stabilize hemodynamics, obtain type and
cross, and plan cesarean delivery if bleeding persists or placenta covers cervix
Rationale: Placenta previa risks severe hemorrhage; vaginal exams can provoke bleeding.
Stabilization and surgical planning are priorities.
• A 29-year-old postpartum patient 2 hours after vaginal delivery has a boggy uterus and
saturating a perineal pad every 10 minutes. Which immediate nursing action is most
appropriate?
Options: A. Encourage ambulation; B. Perform uterine massage, assess for retained tissue,
and prepare uterotonic agents per protocol; C. Delay intervention and recheck in 2 hours; D.
Apply ice packs only
Answer: B. Perform uterine massage, assess for retained tissue, and prepare
uterotonic agents per protocol
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage; immediate
uterine massage and uterotonics (oxytocin, methylergonovine if not contraindicated) are
first-line.
• A 31-year-old with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse
notes respiratory rate 8 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and serum magnesium
pending. What is the correct immediate action?
Options: A. Increase magnesium infusion rate; B. Stop magnesium infusion, call provider,
and prepare calcium gluconate for reversal; C. Administer additional antihypertensive; D.
Encourage deep breathing exercises
Answer: B. Stop magnesium infusion, call provider, and prepare calcium gluconate
for reversal
Rationale: Signs of magnesium toxicity (respiratory depression, loss of reflexes) require
stopping infusion and administering calcium gluconate as antidote; airway support may be
needed.
• A 27-year-old with suspected placental abruption presents with abdominal pain, uterine
tenderness, and nonreassuring fetal heart tracing. Which maternal lab should the nurse
prioritize to assess for coagulopathy?
Options: A. Serum glucose; B. Complete blood count and coagulation profile including
fibrinogen and D-dimer; C. Liver function tests only; D. Urinalysis
Answer: B. Complete blood count and coagulation profile including fibrinogen and
D-dimer
Rationale: Abruption can trigger consumptive coagulopathy (DIC); early assessment of
hemoglobin, platelets, PT/INR, fibrinogen guides transfusion and management.
• A 36-year-old with suspected intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) at 34 weeks has a
nonstress test (NST) that is nonreactive. What is the next best diagnostic step?
Options: A. Immediate cesarean delivery; B. Perform a biophysical profile (BPP) or
contraction stress test to further assess fetal well-being; C. Discharge home with routine
follow-up; D. Start tocolytics
Answer: B. Perform a biophysical profile (BPP) or contraction stress test to further
assess fetal well-being
Rationale: A nonreactive NST warrants further assessment (BPP or CST) to evaluate fetal
oxygenation and guide timing of delivery.
• A 24-year-old with prolonged latent labor is receiving oxytocin augmentation. The fetal
monitor shows uterine tachysystole with recurrent variable decelerations. Which immediate
nursing action is indicated?
Options: A. Increase oxytocin infusion to shorten labor; B. Stop oxytocin infusion,
reposition mother, give oxygen, and notify provider; C. Continue current management and
document only; D. Administer magnesium sulfate
3
, Answer: B. Stop oxytocin infusion, reposition mother, give oxygen, and notify
provider
Rationale: Uterine tachysystole can compromise fetal oxygenation; stopping oxytocin and
intrauterine resuscitation are immediate steps.
• A 30-year-old with suspected intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (pruritus and elevated
bile acids) at 34 weeks asks about fetal risks. Which statement is most accurate for
counseling?
Options: A. There are no fetal risks; B. Increased risk of stillbirth and preterm labor—close
fetal surveillance and consideration of early delivery may be indicated; C. Only maternal
symptoms matter; D. Immediate induction at 34 weeks is always required
Answer: B. Increased risk of stillbirth and preterm labor—close fetal surveillance and
consideration of early delivery may be indicated
Rationale: Intrahepatic cholestasis increases fetal risk; management includes monitoring
bile acids and considering delivery timing (often 37–38 weeks) based on severity.
• A 22-year-old with suspected uterine inversion after delivery is hypotensive and in severe
pain. Which immediate interventions should the nurse perform?
Options: A. Attempt manual replacement of the uterus after resuscitation with IV fluids
and blood products, call for surgical assistance, and provide analgesia; B. Observe and wait
for spontaneous correction; C. Start oxytocin only; D. Apply uterine massage only
Answer: A. Attempt manual replacement of the uterus after resuscitation with IV
fluids and blood products, call for surgical assistance, and provide analgesia
Rationale: Uterine inversion is an obstetric emergency causing hemorrhage and shock;
immediate resuscitation and prompt manual or surgical correction are required.
• A 29-year-old with suspected amniotic fluid embolism (sudden hypoxia, hypotension,
coagulopathy) is deteriorating. Which multidisciplinary actions should the nurse prioritize?
Options: A. Provide supportive care with oxygenation, hemodynamic support, correct
coagulopathy, and prepare for emergent delivery if maternal stabilization requires it; B.
Give oral fluids and observe; C. Delay interventions until lab confirmation; D. Start
antibiotics only
Answer: A. Provide supportive care with oxygenation, hemodynamic support, correct
coagulopathy, and prepare for emergent delivery if maternal stabilization requires it
Rationale: Amniotic fluid embolism is catastrophic; immediate supportive measures and
rapid coordination for delivery and blood product replacement are lifesaving.
• A 33-year-old with postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony has not responded to
uterine massage and oxytocin. Which uterotonic is contraindicated in this patient with
hypertension?
Options: A. Methylergonovine (ergot alkaloid) is contraindicated in hypertension; B.
Carboprost (prostaglandin F2α) is contraindicated in asthma only; C. Misoprostol is
contraindicated in all cases; D. Tranexamic acid is contraindicated in hemorrhage
Answer: A. Methylergonovine (ergot alkaloid) is contraindicated in hypertension
Rationale: Methylergonovine causes vasoconstriction and is contraindicated in
hypertensive patients; carboprost is contraindicated in asthma; misoprostol is generally safe.
• A 27-year-old with suspected chorioamnionitis is GBS positive and in labor. Which
neonatal management should the nurse anticipate?
Options: A. No special neonatal monitoring; B. Neonatal observation and sepsis evaluation
with blood cultures and antibiotics if maternal intrapartum fever or inadequate prophylaxis;
C. Immediate discharge of neonate; D. Routine administration of antivirals
Answer: B. Neonatal observation and sepsis evaluation with blood cultures and
antibiotics if maternal intrapartum fever or inadequate prophylaxis
Rationale: Maternal infection and GBS status increase neonatal sepsis risk; neonates
4
Course Code: NUR2421C
Course Title: Maternity Nursing Care
Credit Hours:8.0
Exam: Final Exam
Date:2026
Multiple Choice Questions
• A 28-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and
BP 168/112 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. Which immediate nursing action best
prioritizes maternal and fetal safety?
Options: A. Administer oral labetalol and discharge home with follow-up; B. Initiate
magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, give IV antihypertensive per protocol, and
prepare for expedited delivery planning; C. Start oral nifedipine and allow ambulation; D.
Delay treatment until repeat BP in 4 hours
Answer: B. Initiate magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, give IV
antihypertensive per protocol, and prepare for expedited delivery planning
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with end-organ signs) requires seizure
prophylaxis (magnesium sulfate), rapid BP control, and delivery planning because delivery
is definitive treatment; outpatient management is unsafe.
• A 34-year-old with preterm labor at 30 weeks receives a tocolytic and corticosteroids. She
has a history of asthma controlled with inhalers. Which tocolytic is relatively
contraindicated and why?
Options: A. Nifedipine because it causes hypotension; B. Terbutaline because
beta-agonists can exacerbate maternal tachycardia and cause pulmonary edema, especially
risky in cardiac or pulmonary disease; C. Indomethacin because it causes oligohydramnios;
D. Magnesium sulfate because it is teratogenic
Answer: B. Terbutaline because beta-agonists can exacerbate maternal tachycardia
and cause pulmonary edema, especially risky in cardiac or pulmonary disease
Rationale: Terbutaline (beta-agonist) has systemic cardiovascular and pulmonary side
effects; in patients with cardiac or pulmonary comorbidity, risks often outweigh benefits.
Magnesium sulfate is used for neuroprotection and seizure prophylaxis, not teratogenic.
• A 29-year-old in active labor has a prolonged second stage and the fetal heart tracing shows
recurrent late decelerations. The obstetrician requests immediate preparation for operative
delivery. Which nursing interventions are highest priority while preparing for cesarean
delivery?
Options: A. Continue routine monitoring and delay communication; B. Initiate maternal
repositioning to left lateral, give oxygen, start IV bolus, notify anesthesia and OR team, and
prepare for urgent cesarean; C. Administer oral analgesic and wait for spontaneous change;
1
, D. Remove fetal monitor and rely on intermittent auscultation
Answer: B. Initiate maternal repositioning to left lateral, give oxygen, start IV bolus,
notify anesthesia and OR team, and prepare for urgent cesarean
Rationale: Recurrent late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency; immediate
intrauterine resuscitation (positioning, oxygen, IV fluids) and rapid escalation to operative
delivery if no improvement are essential.
• A 32-year-old with a history of prior classical cesarean is now in labor and requests a trial
of labor after cesarean (TOLAC). Which factor most increases the risk of uterine rupture
and should be discussed during counseling?
Options: A. Prior low transverse cesarean only; B. Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision
and induction with oxytocin or prostaglandins; C. Maternal age under 25; D. Multiparity
Answer: B. Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision and induction with oxytocin or
prostaglandins
Rationale: Classical (vertical) uterine incisions carry higher rupture risk;
induction/augmentation increases uterine stress. These are key contraindications or
cautionary factors for TOLAC.
• A 38-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks has a posterior shoulder dystocia during vaginal delivery.
Which immediate maneuver should the nurse assist with first to relieve the dystocia?
Options: A. Apply fundal pressure; B. McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure and
prepare for episiotomy if needed; C. Pull on the fetal head to deliver the shoulder; D. Place
mother in Trendelenburg position only
Answer: B. McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure and prepare for
episiotomy if needed
Rationale: McRoberts (maternal hyperflexion of hips) plus suprapubic pressure is first-line
for shoulder dystocia; fundal pressure and traction on the head are contraindicated due to
risk of fetal injury.
• A 26-year-old with prolonged rupture of membranes (PROM) at 38 weeks has a fever and
fetal tachycardia. Which diagnosis and immediate nursing action are most appropriate?
Options: A. Group B strep colonization; observe only; B. Chorioamnionitis; start
broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and prepare for expedited delivery; C. Normal labor;
continue routine care; D. Maternal dehydration; give oral fluids only
Answer: B. Chorioamnionitis; start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and prepare for
expedited delivery
Rationale: Maternal fever, fetal tachycardia, and PROM suggest intraamniotic infection;
prompt IV antibiotics and delivery (depending on labor status) reduce maternal and
neonatal morbidity.
• A 30-year-old with gestational diabetes controlled on insulin presents in labor. Which
neonatal risk is most important to anticipate and communicate to the pediatric team?
Options: A. Neonatal hypoglycemia due to fetal hyperinsulinemia; B. Neonatal
hyperglycemia; C. No special risks; D. Increased risk of congenital heart defects only
Answer: A. Neonatal hypoglycemia due to fetal hyperinsulinemia
Rationale: Maternal hyperglycemia stimulates fetal insulin production; after birth, loss of
maternal glucose supply can cause neonatal hypoglycemia—anticipate early glucose
monitoring and feeding.
• A 35-year-old with placenta previa at 36 weeks is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding.
Which plan is safest for maternal and fetal care?
Options: A. Perform immediate vaginal exam to assess dilation; B. Avoid digital vaginal
exam, stabilize hemodynamics, obtain type and cross, and plan cesarean delivery if
bleeding persists or placenta covers cervix; C. Start oxytocin infusion to stop bleeding; D.
Discharge home with pelvic rest only
2
, Answer: B. Avoid digital vaginal exam, stabilize hemodynamics, obtain type and
cross, and plan cesarean delivery if bleeding persists or placenta covers cervix
Rationale: Placenta previa risks severe hemorrhage; vaginal exams can provoke bleeding.
Stabilization and surgical planning are priorities.
• A 29-year-old postpartum patient 2 hours after vaginal delivery has a boggy uterus and
saturating a perineal pad every 10 minutes. Which immediate nursing action is most
appropriate?
Options: A. Encourage ambulation; B. Perform uterine massage, assess for retained tissue,
and prepare uterotonic agents per protocol; C. Delay intervention and recheck in 2 hours; D.
Apply ice packs only
Answer: B. Perform uterine massage, assess for retained tissue, and prepare
uterotonic agents per protocol
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage; immediate
uterine massage and uterotonics (oxytocin, methylergonovine if not contraindicated) are
first-line.
• A 31-year-old with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse
notes respiratory rate 8 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and serum magnesium
pending. What is the correct immediate action?
Options: A. Increase magnesium infusion rate; B. Stop magnesium infusion, call provider,
and prepare calcium gluconate for reversal; C. Administer additional antihypertensive; D.
Encourage deep breathing exercises
Answer: B. Stop magnesium infusion, call provider, and prepare calcium gluconate
for reversal
Rationale: Signs of magnesium toxicity (respiratory depression, loss of reflexes) require
stopping infusion and administering calcium gluconate as antidote; airway support may be
needed.
• A 27-year-old with suspected placental abruption presents with abdominal pain, uterine
tenderness, and nonreassuring fetal heart tracing. Which maternal lab should the nurse
prioritize to assess for coagulopathy?
Options: A. Serum glucose; B. Complete blood count and coagulation profile including
fibrinogen and D-dimer; C. Liver function tests only; D. Urinalysis
Answer: B. Complete blood count and coagulation profile including fibrinogen and
D-dimer
Rationale: Abruption can trigger consumptive coagulopathy (DIC); early assessment of
hemoglobin, platelets, PT/INR, fibrinogen guides transfusion and management.
• A 36-year-old with suspected intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) at 34 weeks has a
nonstress test (NST) that is nonreactive. What is the next best diagnostic step?
Options: A. Immediate cesarean delivery; B. Perform a biophysical profile (BPP) or
contraction stress test to further assess fetal well-being; C. Discharge home with routine
follow-up; D. Start tocolytics
Answer: B. Perform a biophysical profile (BPP) or contraction stress test to further
assess fetal well-being
Rationale: A nonreactive NST warrants further assessment (BPP or CST) to evaluate fetal
oxygenation and guide timing of delivery.
• A 24-year-old with prolonged latent labor is receiving oxytocin augmentation. The fetal
monitor shows uterine tachysystole with recurrent variable decelerations. Which immediate
nursing action is indicated?
Options: A. Increase oxytocin infusion to shorten labor; B. Stop oxytocin infusion,
reposition mother, give oxygen, and notify provider; C. Continue current management and
document only; D. Administer magnesium sulfate
3
, Answer: B. Stop oxytocin infusion, reposition mother, give oxygen, and notify
provider
Rationale: Uterine tachysystole can compromise fetal oxygenation; stopping oxytocin and
intrauterine resuscitation are immediate steps.
• A 30-year-old with suspected intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (pruritus and elevated
bile acids) at 34 weeks asks about fetal risks. Which statement is most accurate for
counseling?
Options: A. There are no fetal risks; B. Increased risk of stillbirth and preterm labor—close
fetal surveillance and consideration of early delivery may be indicated; C. Only maternal
symptoms matter; D. Immediate induction at 34 weeks is always required
Answer: B. Increased risk of stillbirth and preterm labor—close fetal surveillance and
consideration of early delivery may be indicated
Rationale: Intrahepatic cholestasis increases fetal risk; management includes monitoring
bile acids and considering delivery timing (often 37–38 weeks) based on severity.
• A 22-year-old with suspected uterine inversion after delivery is hypotensive and in severe
pain. Which immediate interventions should the nurse perform?
Options: A. Attempt manual replacement of the uterus after resuscitation with IV fluids
and blood products, call for surgical assistance, and provide analgesia; B. Observe and wait
for spontaneous correction; C. Start oxytocin only; D. Apply uterine massage only
Answer: A. Attempt manual replacement of the uterus after resuscitation with IV
fluids and blood products, call for surgical assistance, and provide analgesia
Rationale: Uterine inversion is an obstetric emergency causing hemorrhage and shock;
immediate resuscitation and prompt manual or surgical correction are required.
• A 29-year-old with suspected amniotic fluid embolism (sudden hypoxia, hypotension,
coagulopathy) is deteriorating. Which multidisciplinary actions should the nurse prioritize?
Options: A. Provide supportive care with oxygenation, hemodynamic support, correct
coagulopathy, and prepare for emergent delivery if maternal stabilization requires it; B.
Give oral fluids and observe; C. Delay interventions until lab confirmation; D. Start
antibiotics only
Answer: A. Provide supportive care with oxygenation, hemodynamic support, correct
coagulopathy, and prepare for emergent delivery if maternal stabilization requires it
Rationale: Amniotic fluid embolism is catastrophic; immediate supportive measures and
rapid coordination for delivery and blood product replacement are lifesaving.
• A 33-year-old with postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony has not responded to
uterine massage and oxytocin. Which uterotonic is contraindicated in this patient with
hypertension?
Options: A. Methylergonovine (ergot alkaloid) is contraindicated in hypertension; B.
Carboprost (prostaglandin F2α) is contraindicated in asthma only; C. Misoprostol is
contraindicated in all cases; D. Tranexamic acid is contraindicated in hemorrhage
Answer: A. Methylergonovine (ergot alkaloid) is contraindicated in hypertension
Rationale: Methylergonovine causes vasoconstriction and is contraindicated in
hypertensive patients; carboprost is contraindicated in asthma; misoprostol is generally safe.
• A 27-year-old with suspected chorioamnionitis is GBS positive and in labor. Which
neonatal management should the nurse anticipate?
Options: A. No special neonatal monitoring; B. Neonatal observation and sepsis evaluation
with blood cultures and antibiotics if maternal intrapartum fever or inadequate prophylaxis;
C. Immediate discharge of neonate; D. Routine administration of antivirals
Answer: B. Neonatal observation and sepsis evaluation with blood cultures and
antibiotics if maternal intrapartum fever or inadequate prophylaxis
Rationale: Maternal infection and GBS status increase neonatal sepsis risk; neonates
4
