WGU D570 COGNITIVE PSYCHOLOGY OA EXAM 2026/2027 |
Complete Test Bank 120 Questions & Verified Answers |
Aligned with WGU Curriculum & APA Standards | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: HISTORY, METHODS & FOUNDATIONS OF COGNITIVE
PSYCHOLOGY
Questions 1-15
Q1. Dr. Martinez is designing a study to measure how quickly participants can
distinguish between a red circle and a blue square. She presents the stimuli and records
the time from stimulus onset to button press. Which historical method is she most
directly applying?
A. Donders' subtraction method
B. Sternberg's additive factors method
C. Ebbinghaus' savings method
D. Skinner's operant conditioning paradigm
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Donders' subtraction method (1868) used simple reaction time (respond to
any stimulus) and choice reaction time (respond differentially to stimuli) to isolate the
duration of mental processes—subtracting simple RT from choice RT yields the time for
stimulus discrimination and response selection. Dr. Martinez is measuring choice
reaction time to isolate discrimination processes. B is incorrect because Sternberg's
additive factors method (1969) manipulates multiple independent variables to
determine whether stages are serial or parallel, not merely measuring discrimination
time. C is incorrect because Ebbinghaus' savings method measured memory retention
over time, not reaction time. D is incorrect because Skinner's operant conditioning
focused on reinforcement schedules and behavior modification, not mental
chronometry. Classic study: Donders (1868) was the first to attempt measuring the
speed of mental processes. Cognitive mechanism: Mental chronometry isolates discrete
processing stages. WGU strategy: Donders and Sternberg are frequently contrasted on
the OA—Donders subtracts, Sternberg adds factors.
Q2. A cognitive neuroscientist wants to determine whether the left inferior frontal gyrus
is causally necessary for phonological working memory. Which technique should she
use?
A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
B. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
C. Positron emission tomography (PET)
D. Electroencephalography (EEG)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TMS creates temporary, reversible "virtual lesions" by disrupting neural
activity in targeted cortical regions, allowing causal inferences about necessity—if
phonological working memory declines during left IFG stimulation, that region is
causally necessary. B is incorrect because fMRI measures correlated
,blood-oxygen-level-dependent (BOLD) signals; correlation does not establish causation.
C is incorrect because PET measures metabolic activity via radioactive tracers, also
correlational. D is incorrect because EEG/ERP has excellent temporal resolution
(milliseconds) but poor spatial resolution and cannot establish causal necessity.
Real-world application: TMS is used clinically to treat depression and study aphasia
recovery. WGU strategy: "Causality" in neuroimaging questions almost always points to
TMS or lesion studies.
Q3. Patient H.M. (Henry Molaison) underwent bilateral medial temporal lobe resection
to treat epilepsy. Post-surgery, he could converse normally, recall childhood memories,
and learn new motor skills, but could not form new episodic memories. Which concept
does this case most directly demonstrate?
A. Double dissociation between declarative and nondeclarative memory
B. The unity of all memory systems
C. That working memory and long-term memory are identical systems
D. That semantic and episodic memory are completely independent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: H.M.'s preserved procedural/implicit memory alongside devastated
episodic/semantic encoding demonstrates a dissociation within declarative memory;
combined with other patients showing opposite patterns (e.g., semantic dementia with
preserved episodic memory), this establishes a double dissociation between declarative
and nondeclarative systems (Squire, 1992). B is incorrect because H.M.'s case famously
demonstrated memory fractionation, not unity. C is incorrect because working memory
and LTM are dissociable (Baddeley's model). D is incorrect because semantic and
episodic memory, while dissociable, interact heavily (Tulving's encoding specificity).
Classic study: Milner, Corkin & Teuber (1968) established H.M.'s syndrome. WGU
, strategy: H.M. questions often test declarative vs. nondeclarative distinctions—know
that motor skill learning (mirror tracing) was preserved.
Q4. A researcher presents participants with two simultaneous auditory messages via
headphones and asks them to shadow (repeat aloud) one message. Participants can
report physical characteristics of the unattended message (male vs. female voice) but
not its semantic content (whether it was reversed speech or coherent prose). Which
theory of attention does this finding support?
A. Broadbent's early selection filter theory
B. Treisman's attenuation theory
C. Deutsch & Deutsch's late selection theory
D. Kahneman's capacity model
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cherry's (1953) dichotic listening studies found that participants could report
physical properties (voice, pitch, location) of unattended messages but not semantic
content, supporting Broadbent's (1958) early filter model: attention filters information at
a pre-semantic stage based on physical characteristics, preventing semantic analysis of
unattended inputs. B is incorrect because Treisman's attenuation theory would predict
some semantic processing of unattended messages (the "attenuated" signal still
reaches semantic analysis). C is incorrect because late selection theory posits all
messages receive full semantic analysis with selection occurring only at response. D is
incorrect because Kahneman's capacity model focuses on attentional resources and
allocation policy, not filter location. Classic study: Cherry (1953) established the dichotic
listening paradigm. WGU strategy: Know the "shadowing task" as Cherry's method;
Broadbent = physical filter; Treisman = attenuated semantic processing; Deutsch = full
semantic then select.
Complete Test Bank 120 Questions & Verified Answers |
Aligned with WGU Curriculum & APA Standards | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: HISTORY, METHODS & FOUNDATIONS OF COGNITIVE
PSYCHOLOGY
Questions 1-15
Q1. Dr. Martinez is designing a study to measure how quickly participants can
distinguish between a red circle and a blue square. She presents the stimuli and records
the time from stimulus onset to button press. Which historical method is she most
directly applying?
A. Donders' subtraction method
B. Sternberg's additive factors method
C. Ebbinghaus' savings method
D. Skinner's operant conditioning paradigm
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Donders' subtraction method (1868) used simple reaction time (respond to
any stimulus) and choice reaction time (respond differentially to stimuli) to isolate the
duration of mental processes—subtracting simple RT from choice RT yields the time for
stimulus discrimination and response selection. Dr. Martinez is measuring choice
reaction time to isolate discrimination processes. B is incorrect because Sternberg's
additive factors method (1969) manipulates multiple independent variables to
determine whether stages are serial or parallel, not merely measuring discrimination
time. C is incorrect because Ebbinghaus' savings method measured memory retention
over time, not reaction time. D is incorrect because Skinner's operant conditioning
focused on reinforcement schedules and behavior modification, not mental
chronometry. Classic study: Donders (1868) was the first to attempt measuring the
speed of mental processes. Cognitive mechanism: Mental chronometry isolates discrete
processing stages. WGU strategy: Donders and Sternberg are frequently contrasted on
the OA—Donders subtracts, Sternberg adds factors.
Q2. A cognitive neuroscientist wants to determine whether the left inferior frontal gyrus
is causally necessary for phonological working memory. Which technique should she
use?
A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
B. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
C. Positron emission tomography (PET)
D. Electroencephalography (EEG)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TMS creates temporary, reversible "virtual lesions" by disrupting neural
activity in targeted cortical regions, allowing causal inferences about necessity—if
phonological working memory declines during left IFG stimulation, that region is
causally necessary. B is incorrect because fMRI measures correlated
,blood-oxygen-level-dependent (BOLD) signals; correlation does not establish causation.
C is incorrect because PET measures metabolic activity via radioactive tracers, also
correlational. D is incorrect because EEG/ERP has excellent temporal resolution
(milliseconds) but poor spatial resolution and cannot establish causal necessity.
Real-world application: TMS is used clinically to treat depression and study aphasia
recovery. WGU strategy: "Causality" in neuroimaging questions almost always points to
TMS or lesion studies.
Q3. Patient H.M. (Henry Molaison) underwent bilateral medial temporal lobe resection
to treat epilepsy. Post-surgery, he could converse normally, recall childhood memories,
and learn new motor skills, but could not form new episodic memories. Which concept
does this case most directly demonstrate?
A. Double dissociation between declarative and nondeclarative memory
B. The unity of all memory systems
C. That working memory and long-term memory are identical systems
D. That semantic and episodic memory are completely independent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: H.M.'s preserved procedural/implicit memory alongside devastated
episodic/semantic encoding demonstrates a dissociation within declarative memory;
combined with other patients showing opposite patterns (e.g., semantic dementia with
preserved episodic memory), this establishes a double dissociation between declarative
and nondeclarative systems (Squire, 1992). B is incorrect because H.M.'s case famously
demonstrated memory fractionation, not unity. C is incorrect because working memory
and LTM are dissociable (Baddeley's model). D is incorrect because semantic and
episodic memory, while dissociable, interact heavily (Tulving's encoding specificity).
Classic study: Milner, Corkin & Teuber (1968) established H.M.'s syndrome. WGU
, strategy: H.M. questions often test declarative vs. nondeclarative distinctions—know
that motor skill learning (mirror tracing) was preserved.
Q4. A researcher presents participants with two simultaneous auditory messages via
headphones and asks them to shadow (repeat aloud) one message. Participants can
report physical characteristics of the unattended message (male vs. female voice) but
not its semantic content (whether it was reversed speech or coherent prose). Which
theory of attention does this finding support?
A. Broadbent's early selection filter theory
B. Treisman's attenuation theory
C. Deutsch & Deutsch's late selection theory
D. Kahneman's capacity model
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cherry's (1953) dichotic listening studies found that participants could report
physical properties (voice, pitch, location) of unattended messages but not semantic
content, supporting Broadbent's (1958) early filter model: attention filters information at
a pre-semantic stage based on physical characteristics, preventing semantic analysis of
unattended inputs. B is incorrect because Treisman's attenuation theory would predict
some semantic processing of unattended messages (the "attenuated" signal still
reaches semantic analysis). C is incorrect because late selection theory posits all
messages receive full semantic analysis with selection occurring only at response. D is
incorrect because Kahneman's capacity model focuses on attentional resources and
allocation policy, not filter location. Classic study: Cherry (1953) established the dichotic
listening paradigm. WGU strategy: Know the "shadowing task" as Cherry's method;
Broadbent = physical filter; Treisman = attenuated semantic processing; Deutsch = full
semantic then select.
