ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored
Exam 2023/2025 Actual Exam Study
Guide with 60 Verified Screenshot
EXAM
1. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates a
therapeutic effect?
Answer: Improved cardiac output with strong, regular heartbeat.
Rationale: Digoxin increases myocardial contractility and slows
the heart rate, improving cardiac output. Therapeutic effect is
seen in reduced signs of heart failure (e.g., less edema, improved
exercise tolerance).
2. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
Answer: “I should avoid eating large amounts of green leafy
vegetables.”
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which
antagonizes warfarin’s effects. Consistent intake is key, but large
fluctuations can alter INR.
3. A client takes metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is a
serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
Answer: Lactic acidosis.
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in renal
,impairment, hepatic disease, or hypoxic states. Symptoms include
muscle pain, malaise, and hyperventilation.
4. A nurse administers furosemide IV push. What lab value
should be monitored most closely?
Answer: Serum potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
loss, leading to hypokalemia, which increases risk of arrhythmias
and digoxin toxicity.
5. A client is prescribed albuterol via MDI. What is the primary
action of this medication?
Answer: Bronchodilation by stimulating beta-2 receptors.
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes
bronchial smooth muscle, relieving acute bronchospasm in
asthma/COPD.
6. A nurse reviews the medication list of a client starting an
MAOI (phenelzine). Which food should be avoided?
Answer: Aged cheese.
Rationale: MAOIs block breakdown of tyramine; aged cheese
contains high tyramine, which can cause hypertensive crisis.
7. A client is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours
for osteoarthritis. What is the maximum daily dose the nurse
should not exceed for an adult?
, Answer: 4,000 mg (3,000 mg in older adults or liver disease).
Rationale: Exceeding maximum daily dose risks hepatotoxicity.
Many guidelines now lower the safe limit to 3,000 mg for chronic
use.
8. A client on lithium reports nausea, tremors, and confusion.
What action should the nurse take first?
Answer: Hold the next dose and obtain a serum lithium level.
Rationale: Symptoms suggest lithium toxicity (therapeutic range
0.6–1.2 mEq/L). Immediate assessment is needed; hydration and
sodium status also affect levels.
9. A nurse provides discharge teaching for a client on
isoniazid for latent TB. Which supplement should be
recommended?
Answer: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6).
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by
depleting B6. Supplemental B6 prevents or reduces this adverse
effect.
10. A client is receiving IV heparin. Which lab test is used to
monitor therapeutic effect?
Answer: aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time).
Rationale: Heparin’s effect is monitored by aPTT, typically
maintained at 1.5–2.5 times the normal control.
Exam 2023/2025 Actual Exam Study
Guide with 60 Verified Screenshot
EXAM
1. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates a
therapeutic effect?
Answer: Improved cardiac output with strong, regular heartbeat.
Rationale: Digoxin increases myocardial contractility and slows
the heart rate, improving cardiac output. Therapeutic effect is
seen in reduced signs of heart failure (e.g., less edema, improved
exercise tolerance).
2. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
Answer: “I should avoid eating large amounts of green leafy
vegetables.”
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which
antagonizes warfarin’s effects. Consistent intake is key, but large
fluctuations can alter INR.
3. A client takes metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is a
serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
Answer: Lactic acidosis.
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in renal
,impairment, hepatic disease, or hypoxic states. Symptoms include
muscle pain, malaise, and hyperventilation.
4. A nurse administers furosemide IV push. What lab value
should be monitored most closely?
Answer: Serum potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
loss, leading to hypokalemia, which increases risk of arrhythmias
and digoxin toxicity.
5. A client is prescribed albuterol via MDI. What is the primary
action of this medication?
Answer: Bronchodilation by stimulating beta-2 receptors.
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes
bronchial smooth muscle, relieving acute bronchospasm in
asthma/COPD.
6. A nurse reviews the medication list of a client starting an
MAOI (phenelzine). Which food should be avoided?
Answer: Aged cheese.
Rationale: MAOIs block breakdown of tyramine; aged cheese
contains high tyramine, which can cause hypertensive crisis.
7. A client is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours
for osteoarthritis. What is the maximum daily dose the nurse
should not exceed for an adult?
, Answer: 4,000 mg (3,000 mg in older adults or liver disease).
Rationale: Exceeding maximum daily dose risks hepatotoxicity.
Many guidelines now lower the safe limit to 3,000 mg for chronic
use.
8. A client on lithium reports nausea, tremors, and confusion.
What action should the nurse take first?
Answer: Hold the next dose and obtain a serum lithium level.
Rationale: Symptoms suggest lithium toxicity (therapeutic range
0.6–1.2 mEq/L). Immediate assessment is needed; hydration and
sodium status also affect levels.
9. A nurse provides discharge teaching for a client on
isoniazid for latent TB. Which supplement should be
recommended?
Answer: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6).
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by
depleting B6. Supplemental B6 prevents or reduces this adverse
effect.
10. A client is receiving IV heparin. Which lab test is used to
monitor therapeutic effect?
Answer: aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time).
Rationale: Heparin’s effect is monitored by aPTT, typically
maintained at 1.5–2.5 times the normal control.
