NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology – 200
Antimicrobials Questions and Correct Answers
Latest Guide / UTA NURS 5334 Practice test
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Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics (Questions 1-15)
Q1. Define pharmacokinetics.
A. The impact of drugs on the body
B. The impact of the body on drugs
C. The study of drug toxicity
D. The process of drug approval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics is defined as the impact of the body on drugs—how
much of an administered dose gets to its sites of action. The four major
pharmacokinetic processes are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion .
Q2. What are the four major pharmacokinetic processes?
A. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
B. Ingestion, circulation, breakdown, elimination
C. Administration, transportation, transformation, removal
D. Uptake, binding, biotransformation, clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four major processes are absorption (movement from
administration site into blood), distribution (movement from blood to
tissues), metabolism (enzymatic alteration of drug structure),
and excretion (removal from the body) .
,Q3. Define pharmacodynamics.
A. The impact of the body on drugs
B. The study of drug absorption rates
C. The impact of drugs on the body
D. The process of drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is defined as the impact of drugs on the body—the
nature and intensity of the response to the drug .
Q4. A 72-year-old male with heart failure is on digoxin and furosemide. He
presents with nausea, vomiting, and yellow vision. Lab: K+ 3.1 mEq/L. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Furosemide toxicity
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia from furosemide increases digoxin binding to Na+/K+-
ATPase, leading to digoxin toxicity. Classic signs include nausea, vomiting, and
yellow (xanthopsia) or blurred vision .
Q5. A patient on warfarin starts taking sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for a UTI.
His INR rises from 2.5 to 5.0. What is the mechanism?
A. Induction of warfarin metabolism
B. Displacement from plasma proteins
C. Reduced warfarin absorption
D. Additive antiplatelet effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sulfa drugs displace warfarin from albumin, increasing free warfarin
levels and INR. This is a classic protein-binding interaction .
,Q6. A patient with epilepsy on phenytoin develops toxicity after valproate is
added. Why?
A. Induction of phenytoin excretion
B. Inhibition of phenytoin metabolism
C. Displacement from protein binding
D. Reduced renal blood flow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valproate inhibits CYP2C9/2C19, reducing phenytoin metabolism and
increasing levels. This is an important drug-drug interaction .
Q7. A 45-year-old chronic alcohol user requires higher doses of midazolam for
sedation. What is the mechanism?
A. CYP3A4 enzyme induction
B. Receptor down-regulation
C. Increased renal clearance
D. Decreased bioavailability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic alcohol induces CYP3A4, increasing midazolam metabolism
and reducing effect. This is a classic example of enzyme induction .
Q8. A drug reaches steady state in approximately how many half-lives?
A. 2 half-lives
B. 3 half-lives
C. 4 half-lives
D. 5 half-lives
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A drug reaches steady state in about 5 half-lives. This is regardless of
the specific half-life duration .
Q9. What would up-regulate postsynaptic beta-1 adrenergic receptors?
, A. Daily use of albuterol
B. Daily use of epinephrine
C. Daily use of propranolol
D. Daily use of dopamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Up-regulation of receptors occurs when receptor activation is lower
than normal. Daily use of propranolol (a beta-1 antagonist) would cause up-
regulation .
Q10. Naloxone is what type of agonist?
A. Partial agonist
B. Full agonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Competitive antagonist
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist—it needs morphine to elicit pain
relief and has no effect by itself .
Q11. Morphine is a ______, while pentazocine is a ______.
A. Partial agonist; full agonist
B. Full agonist; partial agonist
C. Antagonist; agonist
D. Inverse agonist; antagonist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morphine is a full agonist (maximal response). Pentazocine is a partial
agonist (submaximal response even at full receptor occupancy) .
Q12. A neonate given chloramphenicol develops gray baby syndrome. Why are
neonates at risk?
A. Increased protein binding
B. Enhanced renal excretion
Antimicrobials Questions and Correct Answers
Latest Guide / UTA NURS 5334 Practice test
GRADED+
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics (Questions 1-15)
Q1. Define pharmacokinetics.
A. The impact of drugs on the body
B. The impact of the body on drugs
C. The study of drug toxicity
D. The process of drug approval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics is defined as the impact of the body on drugs—how
much of an administered dose gets to its sites of action. The four major
pharmacokinetic processes are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion .
Q2. What are the four major pharmacokinetic processes?
A. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
B. Ingestion, circulation, breakdown, elimination
C. Administration, transportation, transformation, removal
D. Uptake, binding, biotransformation, clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four major processes are absorption (movement from
administration site into blood), distribution (movement from blood to
tissues), metabolism (enzymatic alteration of drug structure),
and excretion (removal from the body) .
,Q3. Define pharmacodynamics.
A. The impact of the body on drugs
B. The study of drug absorption rates
C. The impact of drugs on the body
D. The process of drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is defined as the impact of drugs on the body—the
nature and intensity of the response to the drug .
Q4. A 72-year-old male with heart failure is on digoxin and furosemide. He
presents with nausea, vomiting, and yellow vision. Lab: K+ 3.1 mEq/L. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Furosemide toxicity
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia from furosemide increases digoxin binding to Na+/K+-
ATPase, leading to digoxin toxicity. Classic signs include nausea, vomiting, and
yellow (xanthopsia) or blurred vision .
Q5. A patient on warfarin starts taking sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for a UTI.
His INR rises from 2.5 to 5.0. What is the mechanism?
A. Induction of warfarin metabolism
B. Displacement from plasma proteins
C. Reduced warfarin absorption
D. Additive antiplatelet effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sulfa drugs displace warfarin from albumin, increasing free warfarin
levels and INR. This is a classic protein-binding interaction .
,Q6. A patient with epilepsy on phenytoin develops toxicity after valproate is
added. Why?
A. Induction of phenytoin excretion
B. Inhibition of phenytoin metabolism
C. Displacement from protein binding
D. Reduced renal blood flow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valproate inhibits CYP2C9/2C19, reducing phenytoin metabolism and
increasing levels. This is an important drug-drug interaction .
Q7. A 45-year-old chronic alcohol user requires higher doses of midazolam for
sedation. What is the mechanism?
A. CYP3A4 enzyme induction
B. Receptor down-regulation
C. Increased renal clearance
D. Decreased bioavailability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic alcohol induces CYP3A4, increasing midazolam metabolism
and reducing effect. This is a classic example of enzyme induction .
Q8. A drug reaches steady state in approximately how many half-lives?
A. 2 half-lives
B. 3 half-lives
C. 4 half-lives
D. 5 half-lives
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A drug reaches steady state in about 5 half-lives. This is regardless of
the specific half-life duration .
Q9. What would up-regulate postsynaptic beta-1 adrenergic receptors?
, A. Daily use of albuterol
B. Daily use of epinephrine
C. Daily use of propranolol
D. Daily use of dopamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Up-regulation of receptors occurs when receptor activation is lower
than normal. Daily use of propranolol (a beta-1 antagonist) would cause up-
regulation .
Q10. Naloxone is what type of agonist?
A. Partial agonist
B. Full agonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Competitive antagonist
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist—it needs morphine to elicit pain
relief and has no effect by itself .
Q11. Morphine is a ______, while pentazocine is a ______.
A. Partial agonist; full agonist
B. Full agonist; partial agonist
C. Antagonist; agonist
D. Inverse agonist; antagonist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morphine is a full agonist (maximal response). Pentazocine is a partial
agonist (submaximal response even at full receptor occupancy) .
Q12. A neonate given chloramphenicol develops gray baby syndrome. Why are
neonates at risk?
A. Increased protein binding
B. Enhanced renal excretion
