TMC EXAM NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACCURATE ACTUAL EXAM
WITH FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND PRACTICE EXAM
BANK WITH COMPLETE 200 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH
EXPERT VERIFIED RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+| TMC
EXAM REVIEW (BRAND NEW!!)
A 58-year-old female patient is intubated and appears to be breathing
asynchronously with the ventilator. Her breath sounds are absent on the left side
and the trachea appears to be shifted to the left. The patient has a dull percussion
note on the left side as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation
of these findings?
A. A tracheoesophageal fistula has developed
B. A tension pneumothorax has developed on the left side
C. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus
D. The patient is experiencing diffuse bronchospasm - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔-
The correct answer is: C. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus
To get this one correct, you needed to be able to interpret the information that
was provided in the question.
It states that she has a dull percussion note on the left side, tracheal shift toward
the left side, and absent breath sounds on the left side. You needed to recognize
that these are all signs of atelectasis.
So now you have to think, "What would cause atelectasis?" In this instance, it's
most likely that the endotracheal tube has slipped into the right mainstem
bronchus which has caused left-sided atelectasis.
1|Page
,Diffuse bronchospasm would cause bilateral wheezing and a left-sided
pneumothorax would cause a hyperresonant percussion note, not a dull
percussion note. So by breaking down the question, you can easily determine that
the correct answer has to be C.
A 63-year-old female patient is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation in
the pressure-controlled A/C mode. If the patient's compliance were to decrease,
which of the following would you expect to occur?
A. Her delivered volume will decrease
B. Her peak pressure will increase
C. Her inspiratory time will increase
D. Her PEEP level will decrease - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer is: A.
Her delivered volume will decrease
To get this one correct, you must have a basic understanding of lung compliance.
You also have to take into account that the ventilator is in the pressure control
mode, which means that the pressure is pre-set.
If there is a decrease in lung compliance when the ventilator is operating in the
pressure control mode, the machine will continue delivering a constant pressure.
But, since the lungs don't expand as much when there is decreased compliance, it
reaches the set pressure limit much faster. That means that there will be a
decrease in the delivered tidal volume.
In this case, the inspiratory time will decrease and the PEEP levels should not be
affected.
A 70-year-old male patient is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation in
the volume-controlled A/C mode. After performing endotracheal suctioning,
2|Page
,which of the following would indicate the effective clearance of retained
secretions?
A. An increased tidal volume
B. A decreased inspiratory time
C. A decreased plateau pressure
D. A decreased peak pressure - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer is: D.
A decreased peak pressure
Generally, you should remember that retained secretions will increase the
patient's airway resistance and peak airway pressure during volume control
ventilation.
So taking that into consideration, if you were to clear the secretions via
suctioning, that should decrease the patient's peak airway pressure.
On the other hand, if the patient had been receiving pressure-controlled
ventilation, you would expect an increase in delivered volume once secretions are
cleared. That's the key to getting this one correct — you needed to understand
the difference between volume and pressure-controlled ventilation.
None of the other answer choices make sense in this situation, so you know that
the correct answer has to be D.
An adult patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation suddenly started showing
signs of tachypnea. Upon assessment, you note tracheal deviation to the right and
decreased breath sounds and hyperresonance on the left. Which of the following
would you recommend?
A. The patient needs suctioning
B. The patient needs a bronchoscopy
3|Page
, C. The insertion of a chest tube
D. The patient needs a thoracentesis - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer
is: C. The insertion of a chest tube
For this one, you needed to be able to interpret the signs and symptoms that
were given in the question. And by doing so, you could easily determine that all of
the signs are consistent with a pneumothorax.
Remember, patients with a pneumothorax will typically show tracheal deviation
away from the affected side. They will also show decreased breath sounds and
hyperresonance on the affected side as well.
So in order to treat a pneumothorax, the patient requires an immediate insertion
of a chest tube on the affected side. None of the other answer choices really
make sense in this situation, so you know that the correct answer has to be C.
A 57-year-old female patient with acute pulmonary edema is dyspneic and
appears to be wheezing. The resident physician has ordered an albuterol
breathing treatment via SVN. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Recommend acetylcysteine instead of albuterol
B. Perform the therapy with supplemental oxygen
C. Perform the treatment as ordered
D. Recommend a diuretic and oxygen therapy - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The
correct answer is: D. Recommend a diuretic and oxygen therapy
Once you begin working as a Respiratory Therapist, this is something you will run
into far too often. A nurse or new physician will hear wheezing and automatically
request for the RT to provide a breathing treatment for the patient.
4|Page
WITH FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND PRACTICE EXAM
BANK WITH COMPLETE 200 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH
EXPERT VERIFIED RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+| TMC
EXAM REVIEW (BRAND NEW!!)
A 58-year-old female patient is intubated and appears to be breathing
asynchronously with the ventilator. Her breath sounds are absent on the left side
and the trachea appears to be shifted to the left. The patient has a dull percussion
note on the left side as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation
of these findings?
A. A tracheoesophageal fistula has developed
B. A tension pneumothorax has developed on the left side
C. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus
D. The patient is experiencing diffuse bronchospasm - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔-
The correct answer is: C. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus
To get this one correct, you needed to be able to interpret the information that
was provided in the question.
It states that she has a dull percussion note on the left side, tracheal shift toward
the left side, and absent breath sounds on the left side. You needed to recognize
that these are all signs of atelectasis.
So now you have to think, "What would cause atelectasis?" In this instance, it's
most likely that the endotracheal tube has slipped into the right mainstem
bronchus which has caused left-sided atelectasis.
1|Page
,Diffuse bronchospasm would cause bilateral wheezing and a left-sided
pneumothorax would cause a hyperresonant percussion note, not a dull
percussion note. So by breaking down the question, you can easily determine that
the correct answer has to be C.
A 63-year-old female patient is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation in
the pressure-controlled A/C mode. If the patient's compliance were to decrease,
which of the following would you expect to occur?
A. Her delivered volume will decrease
B. Her peak pressure will increase
C. Her inspiratory time will increase
D. Her PEEP level will decrease - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer is: A.
Her delivered volume will decrease
To get this one correct, you must have a basic understanding of lung compliance.
You also have to take into account that the ventilator is in the pressure control
mode, which means that the pressure is pre-set.
If there is a decrease in lung compliance when the ventilator is operating in the
pressure control mode, the machine will continue delivering a constant pressure.
But, since the lungs don't expand as much when there is decreased compliance, it
reaches the set pressure limit much faster. That means that there will be a
decrease in the delivered tidal volume.
In this case, the inspiratory time will decrease and the PEEP levels should not be
affected.
A 70-year-old male patient is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation in
the volume-controlled A/C mode. After performing endotracheal suctioning,
2|Page
,which of the following would indicate the effective clearance of retained
secretions?
A. An increased tidal volume
B. A decreased inspiratory time
C. A decreased plateau pressure
D. A decreased peak pressure - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer is: D.
A decreased peak pressure
Generally, you should remember that retained secretions will increase the
patient's airway resistance and peak airway pressure during volume control
ventilation.
So taking that into consideration, if you were to clear the secretions via
suctioning, that should decrease the patient's peak airway pressure.
On the other hand, if the patient had been receiving pressure-controlled
ventilation, you would expect an increase in delivered volume once secretions are
cleared. That's the key to getting this one correct — you needed to understand
the difference between volume and pressure-controlled ventilation.
None of the other answer choices make sense in this situation, so you know that
the correct answer has to be D.
An adult patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation suddenly started showing
signs of tachypnea. Upon assessment, you note tracheal deviation to the right and
decreased breath sounds and hyperresonance on the left. Which of the following
would you recommend?
A. The patient needs suctioning
B. The patient needs a bronchoscopy
3|Page
, C. The insertion of a chest tube
D. The patient needs a thoracentesis - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The correct answer
is: C. The insertion of a chest tube
For this one, you needed to be able to interpret the signs and symptoms that
were given in the question. And by doing so, you could easily determine that all of
the signs are consistent with a pneumothorax.
Remember, patients with a pneumothorax will typically show tracheal deviation
away from the affected side. They will also show decreased breath sounds and
hyperresonance on the affected side as well.
So in order to treat a pneumothorax, the patient requires an immediate insertion
of a chest tube on the affected side. None of the other answer choices really
make sense in this situation, so you know that the correct answer has to be C.
A 57-year-old female patient with acute pulmonary edema is dyspneic and
appears to be wheezing. The resident physician has ordered an albuterol
breathing treatment via SVN. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Recommend acetylcysteine instead of albuterol
B. Perform the therapy with supplemental oxygen
C. Perform the treatment as ordered
D. Recommend a diuretic and oxygen therapy - CORRECT ANSWER ✔✔- The
correct answer is: D. Recommend a diuretic and oxygen therapy
Once you begin working as a Respiratory Therapist, this is something you will run
into far too often. A nurse or new physician will hear wheezing and automatically
request for the RT to provide a breathing treatment for the patient.
4|Page
