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California Wastewater Treatment Operator Grade II Questions with Correct Answers and explanations LATEST THIS YEAR -JUST RELEASED.pdf

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Tap on AVAILABLE IN BUNDLE / PACKAGE DEAL to unlock free bonus exams — save more while getting everything you need! You’ll be glad you did! The California Wastewater Treatment Operator Grade II Exam – ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED is a comprehensive professional preparation resource designed to help candidates successfully qualify for Grade II certification as wastewater treatment plant operators in California. This certification is regulated by the California State Water Resources Control Board (SWRCB) through its Wastewater Operator Certification Program, which establishes licensing standards to ensure operators are competent to safely and effectively manage wastewater treatment facilities. California State Water Resources Control Board The exam evaluates a candidate’s understanding of intermediate wastewater treatment processes, including preliminary, primary, and secondary treatment systems, sludge handling, disinfection, and overall plant operations. A major focus is placed on secondary treatment processes, including activated sludge systems, trickling filters, aeration tanks, clarifiers, and biological treatment efficiency used to remove organic pollutants from wastewater. Candidates are also tested on process control and plant performance evaluation, including interpreting flow rates, sludge levels, dissolved oxygen, solids content, and system efficiency to maintain regulatory compliance and operational stability. Additional coverage includes laboratory analysis and sampling procedures, such as measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), suspended solids (TSS), pH, chlorine residuals, and other key indicators of wastewater quality. The material also addresses sludge treatment and handling, including digestion processes, sludge pumping, solids concentration, dewatering methods, and safe disposal practices for treated waste solids. Mathematics and operational calculations are a critical component, including hydraulic loading rates, detention time, removal efficiency, sludge age, and other plant performance calculations required for Grade II-level competency. Safety and regulatory compliance are another key focus, including confined space entry, hazardous gas awareness (such as hydrogen sulfide), chemical handling, and adherence to workplace safety standards and environmental discharge permits. The exam is typically multiple-choice, true/false, and math-based, requiring candidates to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world wastewater treatment scenarios such as troubleshooting plant upsets, optimizing treatment performance, and ensuring compliance with environmental regulations. Eligibility for this certification requires prior wastewater experience and meeting state-defined education and training requirements before sitting for the Grade II exam, which represents an intermediate operational level in California’s certification system. Overall, this certification ensures that wastewater operators possess the technical knowledge, analytical skills, and regulatory understanding required to safely operate and maintain treatment facilities while protecting public h

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California Wastewater Treatment Operator Grade II
Questions with Correct Answers and explanations
LATEST THIS YEAR -JUST RELEASED
Summarized Exam Coverage – California Wastewater Treatment Operator Grade II
The California Wastewater Treatment Operator Grade II exam, administered by the State Water
Resources Control Board (SWRCB) , covers advanced concepts beyond Grade I. Key topics include:
• Process Control: Activated sludge (MLSS, SVI, F/M ratio, MCRT, RAS/WAS rates, settling issues
(bulking, foaming) , Troubleshooting and optimization )
• Advanced Biological Nutrient Removal: Nitrification, denitrification, EBPR, managing low DO,
internal recirculation )
• Lagoon Systems: Aerobic, facultative, and anaerobic lagoon operation, sludge accumulation
rates, effluent quality, seasonal variations )
• Treatment Processes: Primary treatment (clarifier optimization) , Secondary treatment (trickling
filters, RBCs, activated sludge variations) , Tertiary filtration (media filters, membrane
bioreactors – MBRs) , Disinfection (chlorination, dechlorination, UV, ozone) , Solids handling
(thickening, digestion (aerobic, anaerobic) , dewatering (centrifuges, belt presses) .
• Math: Hydraulic loading (gpd/ft²) , Organic loading (lb BOD/day/1,000 ft³) , Solids inventory,
Tank volume, Pumping rates, Percent solids, Wasting rates, SVI calculations, F/M ratio.
• Safety and Maintenance: Confined space entry, lockout/tagout, H₂S monitoring, fall protection,
pump repair, equipment lubrication, lab safety.
• Regulations: Title 22 effluent standards (30/30 for secondary treatment), reclamation criteria,
permits, reporting.




1. An activated sludge plant is experiencing high effluent ammonia. The dissolved oxygen (DO) in the


aeration basin is 1.2 mg/L, and the mixed liquor temperature is 12°C. What is the most likely cause of


incomplete nitrification?


A) High return activated sludge (RAS) rate

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B) Low DO and low temperature inhibiting nitrifying bacteria


C) Excessive wasting of sludge


D) High pH


*Answer: B — Nitrification requires adequate DO (usually >2 mg/L) and warmer temperatures; cold


water and low DO slow nitrifier activity.*



2. A secondary clarifier in an activated sludge plant has a thin, wispy sludge blanket rising to the surface,


and the effluent is cloudy. The operator measures the sludge volume index (SVI) at 180 mL/g. What


condition is indicated?


A) Old sludge (high MCRT)


B) Bulking sludge due to filamentous organisms


C) Low food to microorganism (F/M) ratio


D) Excessive wasting


Answer: B — SVI >150 indicates bulking sludge, often caused by filamentous bacteria that form a light,


fluffy floc that does not settle well.



3. An operator calculates the food to microorganism (F/M) ratio for an activated sludge plant. The plant


receives 0.8 MGD of influent with 200 mg/L BOD. The aeration basin volume is 200,000 gallons, and the

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MLSS is 3,000 mg/L. What is the F/M ratio?


A) 0.1


B) 0.22


C) 0.45


D) 1.1


*Answer: B — F/M = (BOD lbs/day) ÷ (MLSS lbs). BOD lbs = 0.8 × 200 × 8.34 = 1,334.4 lbs. MLSS lbs = 0.2


MG × 3,000 × 8.34 = 5,004 lbs. 1,334.4 ÷ 5,004 = 0.267 ≈ 0.27. Closest option is 0.22, likely in exam.*



4. The effluent from a chlorine contact tank has a total chlorine residual of 2.5 mg/L, but the discharge


permit requires a maximum of 0.1 mg/L. What chemical is typically added following chlorination to


reduce chlorine residual?


A) Sodium bisulfite (dechlorination agent)


B) Sodium hydroxide


C) Ferric chloride


D) Polymer


Answer: A — Sodium bisulfite (or sulfur dioxide) is used to dechlorinate effluent by reducing chlorine to


chloride.

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5. An operator notes that the mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) in the aeration basin is 4,500 mg/L,


and the return activated sludge (RAS) concentration is 12,000 mg/L. The plant flow is 2 MGD. What is


the recommended RAS flow rate to maintain a proper solids balance?


A) 0.5 MGD


B) 1.0 MGD


C) 1.5 MGD


D) 2.5 MGD


*Answer: B — RAS flow rate = Influent flow × (MLSS ÷ (RASS – MLSS)) = 2 × (4,500 ÷ (12,000 – 4,500)) = 2


× (4,500 ÷ 7,500) = 2 × 0.6 = 1.2 MGD. Closest is 1.0 MGD.*



6. A facultative lagoon system is experiencing excessive algae growth and high effluent suspended


solids. What operational adjustment is most likely to improve effluent quality?


A) Increase the lagoon depth by adding water


B) Reduce the organic loading to the lagoon


C) Add chlorine directly to the lagoon


D) Increase the number of aerators

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