MED-SURG II HESI EXAM - (55 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-
DATE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS -
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: HESI (Health Education Systems, Inc.)
Candidate Name: ____________________________
Candidate ID: _______________________________
Date: ______________________________________
Examination Centre: __________________________
Time Allocation: 90 Minutes
Total Questions: Approximately 55
Instructions:
• Read each question carefully before selecting the best answer.
• Choose only one correct answer per question.
• Use clinical judgment and prioritize patient safety at all times.
• Do not leave any questions unanswered.
• This examination assesses applied knowledge in adult medical-surgical
nursing.
Disclaimer:
This is an original simulation designed to reflect the format and rigor of the
Med-Surg II HESI Exam. It is intended for educational preparation purposes
only.
Core Competency Areas:
• Cardiovascular Disorders
• Respiratory Management
• Neurological Conditions
• Endocrine Disorders
• Renal & Fluid-Electrolyte Balance
• Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Perioperative Care
• Oncology & Immunology
, This assessment evaluates the student’s ability to apply advanced medical-
surgical nursing principles in complex clinical situations. Candidates are
expected to demonstrate critical thinking, prioritization, and safe patient care
management. The exam emphasizes evidence-based practice, clinical
reasoning, and decision-making in acute and chronic conditions commonly
encountered in adult healthcare settings.
Q1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 110/68 mmHg
B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L
C. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
D. Urine output of 1500 mL/day
Correct Answer: B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L
Explanation: 🟡 Hypokalemia is a serious side effect of loop diuretics like
furosemide and can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Normal potassium is
3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Option A is stable, C indicates therapeutic effect, and D reflects
adequate urine output.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. Which intervention is most
appropriate to improve oxygenation?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
C. Place patient in supine position
D. Limit fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
Explanation: 🟡 Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway pressure and
improves gas exchange in COPD patients. High-flow oxygen (A) can suppress
respiratory drive. Supine position (C) worsens breathing. Fluids (D) should not
be restricted unless ordered.
,Q3. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is admitted. What is the
nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer insulin
B. Start IV fluids
C. Monitor blood glucose
D. Assess potassium levels
Correct Answer: B. Start IV fluids
Explanation: 🟡 Fluid resuscitation is the priority in DKA to correct
dehydration and improve perfusion. Insulin (A) is important but given after
fluids. Monitoring (C) and potassium (D) are ongoing but not the first priority.
Q4. A postoperative patient develops sudden shortness of breath and chest
pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer analgesics
B. Elevate head of bed
C. Notify healthcare provider
D. Encourage coughing
Correct Answer: C. Notify healthcare provider
Explanation: 🟡 These symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism, a medical
emergency. Immediate provider notification is critical. Elevation (B) helps but
is not sufficient. Analgesics (A) and coughing (D) do not address the cause.
Q5. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. What medication should the nurse anticipate?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Insulin with glucose
D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: C. Insulin with glucose
Explanation: 🟡 Insulin shifts potassium into cells, lowering serum levels
quickly. Calcium gluconate (B) stabilizes cardiac membranes but doesn’t lower
potassium. Sodium bicarbonate (A) may help but is slower. Furosemide (D)
depends on kidney function.
, Q6. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be
positioned:
A. Flat
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Side-lying
Correct Answer: C. Head elevated 30 degrees
Explanation: 🟡 Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP.
Flat (A) and Trendelenburg (B) increase ICP. Side-lying (D) is less optimal
than head elevation.
Q7. Which symptom is most concerning in a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A. Heat intolerance
B. Weight loss
C. Tachycardia
D. Nervousness
Correct Answer: C. Tachycardia
Explanation: 🟡 Tachycardia can lead to cardiac complications such as
arrhythmias. Other symptoms are expected but less immediately dangerous.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving heparin. Which lab value
should be monitored?
A. INR
B. PT
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C. aPTT
Explanation: 🟡 aPTT monitors heparin therapy effectiveness. INR (A) is for
warfarin. PT (B) is less specific. Platelets (D) are monitored for HIT but not
primary effectiveness.
DATE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS -
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: HESI (Health Education Systems, Inc.)
Candidate Name: ____________________________
Candidate ID: _______________________________
Date: ______________________________________
Examination Centre: __________________________
Time Allocation: 90 Minutes
Total Questions: Approximately 55
Instructions:
• Read each question carefully before selecting the best answer.
• Choose only one correct answer per question.
• Use clinical judgment and prioritize patient safety at all times.
• Do not leave any questions unanswered.
• This examination assesses applied knowledge in adult medical-surgical
nursing.
Disclaimer:
This is an original simulation designed to reflect the format and rigor of the
Med-Surg II HESI Exam. It is intended for educational preparation purposes
only.
Core Competency Areas:
• Cardiovascular Disorders
• Respiratory Management
• Neurological Conditions
• Endocrine Disorders
• Renal & Fluid-Electrolyte Balance
• Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Perioperative Care
• Oncology & Immunology
, This assessment evaluates the student’s ability to apply advanced medical-
surgical nursing principles in complex clinical situations. Candidates are
expected to demonstrate critical thinking, prioritization, and safe patient care
management. The exam emphasizes evidence-based practice, clinical
reasoning, and decision-making in acute and chronic conditions commonly
encountered in adult healthcare settings.
Q1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 110/68 mmHg
B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L
C. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
D. Urine output of 1500 mL/day
Correct Answer: B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L
Explanation: 🟡 Hypokalemia is a serious side effect of loop diuretics like
furosemide and can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Normal potassium is
3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Option A is stable, C indicates therapeutic effect, and D reflects
adequate urine output.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. Which intervention is most
appropriate to improve oxygenation?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
C. Place patient in supine position
D. Limit fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
Explanation: 🟡 Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway pressure and
improves gas exchange in COPD patients. High-flow oxygen (A) can suppress
respiratory drive. Supine position (C) worsens breathing. Fluids (D) should not
be restricted unless ordered.
,Q3. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is admitted. What is the
nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer insulin
B. Start IV fluids
C. Monitor blood glucose
D. Assess potassium levels
Correct Answer: B. Start IV fluids
Explanation: 🟡 Fluid resuscitation is the priority in DKA to correct
dehydration and improve perfusion. Insulin (A) is important but given after
fluids. Monitoring (C) and potassium (D) are ongoing but not the first priority.
Q4. A postoperative patient develops sudden shortness of breath and chest
pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer analgesics
B. Elevate head of bed
C. Notify healthcare provider
D. Encourage coughing
Correct Answer: C. Notify healthcare provider
Explanation: 🟡 These symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism, a medical
emergency. Immediate provider notification is critical. Elevation (B) helps but
is not sufficient. Analgesics (A) and coughing (D) do not address the cause.
Q5. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. What medication should the nurse anticipate?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Insulin with glucose
D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: C. Insulin with glucose
Explanation: 🟡 Insulin shifts potassium into cells, lowering serum levels
quickly. Calcium gluconate (B) stabilizes cardiac membranes but doesn’t lower
potassium. Sodium bicarbonate (A) may help but is slower. Furosemide (D)
depends on kidney function.
, Q6. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be
positioned:
A. Flat
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Side-lying
Correct Answer: C. Head elevated 30 degrees
Explanation: 🟡 Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP.
Flat (A) and Trendelenburg (B) increase ICP. Side-lying (D) is less optimal
than head elevation.
Q7. Which symptom is most concerning in a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A. Heat intolerance
B. Weight loss
C. Tachycardia
D. Nervousness
Correct Answer: C. Tachycardia
Explanation: 🟡 Tachycardia can lead to cardiac complications such as
arrhythmias. Other symptoms are expected but less immediately dangerous.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving heparin. Which lab value
should be monitored?
A. INR
B. PT
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C. aPTT
Explanation: 🟡 aPTT monitors heparin therapy effectiveness. INR (A) is for
warfarin. PT (B) is less specific. Platelets (D) are monitored for HIT but not
primary effectiveness.
