NSG 3850 Assessment review (Pathophysiology for
Nurses II) Rated A+
Q1. What is the primary cause of myocardial infarction?
Answer: Coronary artery occlusion due to atherosclerotic plaque rupture
Rationale: Plaque rupture exposes subendothelial tissue, triggering platelet
aggregation and thrombus formation, which blocks blood flow to the myocardium.
Q2. Which clinical sign is most associated with left-sided heart failure?
Answer: Pulmonary edema
Rationale: Left-sided failure increases left atrial and pulmonary venous
pressures, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs.
Q3. What is the major complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
Answer: Target organ damage (heart, kidneys, brain, eyes)
Rationale: Chronic high pressure damages vascular endothelium, accelerating
atherosclerosis and impairing organ perfusion.
Q4.What is the hallmark feature of asthma?
Answer: Airway hyperresponsiveness
Rationale: Asthma involves exaggerated bronchoconstriction in response to
stimuli, leading to reversible airflow obstruction.
Q5.What is the primary risk factor for COPD?
Answer: Cigarette smoking
Rationale: Smoking causes chronic inflammation, mucus hypersecretion, and
alveolar wall destruction, leading to airflow limitation.
Q6. Which finding is most indicative of pulmonary embolism?
Answer: Sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain
,Rationale: Emboli obstruct pulmonary circulation, impairing gas exchange and
causing acute respiratory distress.
Q7. What is the earliest indicator of acute kidney injury?
Answer: Elevated serum creatinine
Rationale: Creatinine rises quickly when glomerular filtration rate decreases,
making it a sensitive marker of renal dysfunction.
Q8. What defines chronic kidney disease?
Answer: Progressive loss of nephron function
Rationale: CKD is characterized by irreversible decline in renal function over
months to years, often leading to ESRD.
Q9. What is the classic triad of nephrotic syndrome?
Answer: Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema
Rationale: Protein loss in urine lowers plasma oncotic pressure, causing fluid
shifts into tissues and edema.
Q10. What is the underlying pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
Answer: Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Rationale: T-cell mediated immune attack eliminates insulin-producing cells,
resulting in absolute insulin deficiency.
Q11. What is the underlying pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Answer: Insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency
Rationale: Peripheral tissues fail to respond to insulin, and pancreatic beta cells
cannot compensate, leading to hyperglycemia.
Q12. Which lab finding is typical in hyperthyroidism?
Answer: Elevated T3/T4 with suppressed TSH
Rationale: Excess thyroid hormone provides negative feedback, lowering
pituitary TSH secretion.
Q13. What causes ischemic stroke?
, Answer: Cerebral artery occlusion
Rationale: A thrombus or embolus blocks blood flow, depriving brain tissue of
oxygen.
Q14.What causes hemorrhagic stroke?
Answer: Ruptured cerebral vessel
Rationale: Vessel rupture leads to bleeding into brain tissue, increasing
intracranial pressure.
Q15.What is the pathology in multiple sclerosis?
Answer: Immune-mediated demyelination in CNS
Rationale: Autoimmune attack destroys myelin, impairing nerve conduction.
Q16.Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?
Answer: Dopamine
Rationale: Degeneration of substantia nigra neurons reduces dopamine,
causing motor symptoms.
Q17.What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection
Rationale: H. pylori damages mucosa, increasing susceptibility to acid injury.
Q18.What distinguishes Crohn’s disease?
Answer: Transmural inflammation with skip lesions
Rationale: Inflammation affects all layers of bowel wall and is discontinuous.
Q19.What distinguishes ulcerative colitis?
Answer: Continuous mucosal inflammation of colon
Rationale: UC affects only mucosa and submucosa, starting at rectum and
extending proximally.
Q20.What RBC morphology is seen in iron-deficiency anemia?
Nurses II) Rated A+
Q1. What is the primary cause of myocardial infarction?
Answer: Coronary artery occlusion due to atherosclerotic plaque rupture
Rationale: Plaque rupture exposes subendothelial tissue, triggering platelet
aggregation and thrombus formation, which blocks blood flow to the myocardium.
Q2. Which clinical sign is most associated with left-sided heart failure?
Answer: Pulmonary edema
Rationale: Left-sided failure increases left atrial and pulmonary venous
pressures, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs.
Q3. What is the major complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
Answer: Target organ damage (heart, kidneys, brain, eyes)
Rationale: Chronic high pressure damages vascular endothelium, accelerating
atherosclerosis and impairing organ perfusion.
Q4.What is the hallmark feature of asthma?
Answer: Airway hyperresponsiveness
Rationale: Asthma involves exaggerated bronchoconstriction in response to
stimuli, leading to reversible airflow obstruction.
Q5.What is the primary risk factor for COPD?
Answer: Cigarette smoking
Rationale: Smoking causes chronic inflammation, mucus hypersecretion, and
alveolar wall destruction, leading to airflow limitation.
Q6. Which finding is most indicative of pulmonary embolism?
Answer: Sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain
,Rationale: Emboli obstruct pulmonary circulation, impairing gas exchange and
causing acute respiratory distress.
Q7. What is the earliest indicator of acute kidney injury?
Answer: Elevated serum creatinine
Rationale: Creatinine rises quickly when glomerular filtration rate decreases,
making it a sensitive marker of renal dysfunction.
Q8. What defines chronic kidney disease?
Answer: Progressive loss of nephron function
Rationale: CKD is characterized by irreversible decline in renal function over
months to years, often leading to ESRD.
Q9. What is the classic triad of nephrotic syndrome?
Answer: Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema
Rationale: Protein loss in urine lowers plasma oncotic pressure, causing fluid
shifts into tissues and edema.
Q10. What is the underlying pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
Answer: Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Rationale: T-cell mediated immune attack eliminates insulin-producing cells,
resulting in absolute insulin deficiency.
Q11. What is the underlying pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Answer: Insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency
Rationale: Peripheral tissues fail to respond to insulin, and pancreatic beta cells
cannot compensate, leading to hyperglycemia.
Q12. Which lab finding is typical in hyperthyroidism?
Answer: Elevated T3/T4 with suppressed TSH
Rationale: Excess thyroid hormone provides negative feedback, lowering
pituitary TSH secretion.
Q13. What causes ischemic stroke?
, Answer: Cerebral artery occlusion
Rationale: A thrombus or embolus blocks blood flow, depriving brain tissue of
oxygen.
Q14.What causes hemorrhagic stroke?
Answer: Ruptured cerebral vessel
Rationale: Vessel rupture leads to bleeding into brain tissue, increasing
intracranial pressure.
Q15.What is the pathology in multiple sclerosis?
Answer: Immune-mediated demyelination in CNS
Rationale: Autoimmune attack destroys myelin, impairing nerve conduction.
Q16.Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?
Answer: Dopamine
Rationale: Degeneration of substantia nigra neurons reduces dopamine,
causing motor symptoms.
Q17.What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection
Rationale: H. pylori damages mucosa, increasing susceptibility to acid injury.
Q18.What distinguishes Crohn’s disease?
Answer: Transmural inflammation with skip lesions
Rationale: Inflammation affects all layers of bowel wall and is discontinuous.
Q19.What distinguishes ulcerative colitis?
Answer: Continuous mucosal inflammation of colon
Rationale: UC affects only mucosa and submucosa, starting at rectum and
extending proximally.
Q20.What RBC morphology is seen in iron-deficiency anemia?
