NR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING

NR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGNR 507 PATHO FINAL EXAM / NR507 PATHO FINAL EXAM: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING Question 1 What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Hyperpolarization Question 2 What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? 106/58 mm Hg 104/55 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg Question 3 Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Cancer cells Fungus Bacteria Question 4 An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Question 5 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Question 6 How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. Question 7 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Hair loss Nausea Weight loss Fatigue Question 8 At birth, which statement is true? Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. Question 9 What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Vitamin B12 by injection Cyanocobalamin by oral intake Folate by oral intake Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Replacement of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial injections of vitamin B12 are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected, followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual’s life. The other options are not treatments for PA. Question 10 Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? Cholera Rocky Mountain spotted fever Sleeping sickness Candida Question 11 Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. Question 12 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Question 13 During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? The nodes fill with purulent exudate. B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are not properly functioning. The nodes are inflamed. Question 14 What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Traumatic injury Question 15 Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Decrease in urine output Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Question 16 After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? 24 to 36 18 to 20 6 to 14 1 to 2 Question 17 Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? Neisseria syphilis Treponema pallidum Chlamydia trachomatis Haemophilus ducreyi T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis. Question 18 The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG T cells IgM Question 19 Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes Only monocytes migrate into a variety of tissues and fully mature into tissue macrophages and myeloid dendritic cells (see Table 27-3). Question 20 In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Spleen Regional lymph nodes Thymus gland Bone marrow Question 21 Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? V IX X VIII Question 22 Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) Chlamydia Adenovirus Question 23 Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Alarm Adaptation Flight or fight Arousal Question 24 Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? Left ventricle Left atrium Right ventricle Right atrium Question 25 Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? Uromodulin Urodilatin Cystatin Nephrin Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein, also known as uromodulin, is the most abundant urinary protein, protects against bacterial adhesion and urolithiasis, and is a ligand for lymphokines. This statement is not true of the other options. Question 26 Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Functional scar Thecal follicle Atretic follicle Corpus luteum Question 27 The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Health history Computed tomographic (CT) scan Skull x-ray studies Cerebrospinal fluid analysis Question 28 Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Alkaline phosphatase Calcium Total protein Phosphorus Question 29 How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? It increases and strengthens the heart rate. The release of epinephrine causes shivering. It raises the metabolic rate. It affects muscle tone. Question 30 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Premenstrual syndrome Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Primary dysmenorrhea Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 31 What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? It becomes thinner. It becomes thicker. It assumes a neutral pH. It undergoes atrophy. Question 32 Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children. Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Question 33 The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations HLA associations and positive family history Autoantibodies and obesity Obesity and positive family history Question 34 What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Polycystic ovary syndrome Endometriosis Pelvic inflammatory disease Salpingitis Question 35 Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Tenfold Fourfold Threefold Twofold Question 36 Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Ligament Tendon Bursa Mesentery Question 37 Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? Volvulus Intussusception Congenital aganglionic megacolon Malrotation Question 38 The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: Disunion Fracture Sprain Strain Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are associated with this damage. Question 39 Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Hyperkinesia Paroxysmal Tardive Cardive Tardive dyskinesia is the involuntary movement of the face, trunk, and extremities. The other terms do not describe involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities. Question 40 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? Growth hormone Oxytocin Epinephrine Cortisol Question 41 It is true that myasthenia gravis: Is an acute autoimmune disease. Causes muscle weakness. May result in adrenergic crisis. Affects the nerve roots. Question 42 What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? Increases serum magnesium. Decreases serum calcium. Increases serum calcium. Decreases serum magnesium. Hyperphosphatemia leads to hypocalcemia; the other options are incorrect. Question 43 An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? Embryonic Chorionic Alpha fetoprotein Amniotic Question 44 Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? Chymotrypsin Trypsin Amylase Lipase Question 45 What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Hypothalamus Thalamus Limbic system Parietal lobe Question 46 Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? Calcium Magnesium Potassium Sodium Question 47 The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Cortisol. Insulin Thyroxine Antidiuretic hormone Question 48 In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption of the pituitary Physiologic hormonal delays Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Disruption in the hypothalamus Question 49 Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys Colonization of the bladder when urine is static Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract. Question 50 Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Question 51 Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? Estrogen levels are low. The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. Question 52 The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept? Incidence Ratio Risk Prevalence Question 53 Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears Question 54 Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease? Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow Question 55 Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? Abducens (CN VI) Trochlear (CN IV) Optic (CN I) Oculomotor (CN III) The oculomotor CN (III) is involved in this manifestation of pupil dilation. None of the other options would result in pupil dilation when subjected to pressure. Question 56 What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Gradual decrease in estrogen levels Gradual increase in estrogen levels Sudden increase of LH Sharp rise in progesterone levels Question 57 Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e., tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia. Question 58 Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? Lack of social interaction Blunted affect Auditory hallucinations Poverty of speech Positive symptoms frequently occur during a psychotic episode, when an individual loses touch with reality and experiences something that should be absent (e.g., hallucinations). The remaining options are classified as negative symptoms. Question 59 What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? Collagen fibers Elastin fibers Sharpey fibers Glycoproteins Question 60 Pyloric stenosis Galactosemia Congenital aganglionic megacolon Esophageal atresia Question 61 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure? Sebaceous glands Eyelids Meibomian glands Conjunctiva Question 62 The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse. Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse. Question 63 What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout? Spurs Stones Nodes Tophi Question 64 The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder? Cri du chat Down syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Question 65 Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? Relative Modifiable Empirical Genetic Obesity is a modifiable risk factor for many diseases including heart disease, stroke, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. The other terms do not apply. Question 66 Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Estrogen Luteinizing hormone (LH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Question 67 Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? Smoking Hypertension Polycythemia Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus Question 68 When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? Synergistic Direct Permissive Pharmacologic Question 69 Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction? Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling Question 70 Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia? Hypothalamus Limbic system Temporal lobe Parietal lobe . Only temporal lobe alterations may be responsible for the production of positive schizophrenic symptoms, such as hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders, and bizarre behavior. Question 71 Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? A depressed Hispanic woman A man diagnosed with schizophrenia An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday An individual on the second day after hip replacement Delirium is associated with autonomic nervous system overactivity and typically develops in 2 to 3 days, most commonly in critical care units, postsurgically, or during withdrawal from CNS depressants (e.g., alcohol, narcotic agents). Age, gender, and chronic illnesses are not generally associated with delirium triggers. Question 72 Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of: Calcium Water Sodium Magnesium Question 73 What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? Hyperspadias Hypospadias Chordee Epispadias Question 74 Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? SSRIs Estrogen NSAIDs Progesterone A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. Question 75 A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 12 3 9 6