Exam 1: NR 324 / NR324 (2026–2027 NEW UPDATE) Adult Health I | Complete Q&A Study Guide | 100% Verified Solutions | Guaranteed Grade A – Chamberlain

Exam 1: NR 324 / NR324 (2026–2027 NEW UPDATE) Adult Health I | Complete Q&A Study Guide | 100% Verified Solutions | Guaranteed Grade A – Chamberlain Q. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client for manifestations of which disorder that the client is at risk for? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis ANSWER B. Metabolic alkalosis Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is defined as a deficit or loss of hydrogen ions or acids or an excess of base (bicarbonate) that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions resulting in hypovolemia, the loss of gastric fluid, excessive bicarbonate intake, the massive transfusion of whole blood, and hyperaldosteronism. Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis as a result of the loss of hydrochloric acid Q. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume excess? A. The client taking diuretics who has tenting of the skin B. The client with an ileostomy from a recent abdominal surgery C. The client who requires intermittent gastrointestinal suctioning D. The client with kidney disease and a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus ANSWER D. The client with kidney disease and a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus Q. Which client is at risk for the development of a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)? A. The client with colitis B. The client with Cushing's syndrome C. The client who has been overusing laxatives D. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn ANSWER D. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn Rationale: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A serum potassium level higher than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) indicates hyperkalemia. Clients who experience cellular shifting of potassium in the early stages of massive cell destruction, such as with trauma, burns, sepsis, or metabolic or respiratory acidosis, are at risk for hyperkalemia. The client with Cushing's syndrome or colitis and the client who has been overusing laxatives are at risk for hypokalemia Q. A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which finding? A. A decreased pH and an increased Paco2 B. An increased pH and a decreased Paco2 C. A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3- D. An increased pH and an increased HCO3- ANSWER D. An increased pH and an increased HCO3- Rationale: Clients experiencing nausea and vomiting would most likely present with metabolic alkalosis resulting from loss of gastric acid, thus causing the pH and HCO3, to increase. Symptoms experienced by the client would include a decrease in the respiratory rate and depth, and tachycardia. Option A reflects a respiratory acidotic condition. Option B reflects a respiratory alkalotic condition, and option C reflects a metabolic acidotic condition. Q. The nurse notes that a client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse monitors the client for which clinical manifestations associated with these ABG results? Select all that apply. A. Nausea B. Confusion C. Bradypnea D. Tachycardia E. Hyperkalemia F. Lightheadedness ANSWER A. Nausea B. Confusion D. Tachycardia F. Lightheadedness Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. Clinical manifestations: Lethargy, Lightheadedness, Confusion, Tachypnea, Tachycardia, Dysrhythmias (related to Hypokalemia), Nausea, Vomiting, Epigastric pain, and Numbness/Tingling of extremities. Q. The nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition? A. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) B. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) C. Magnesium level of 1.8 (0.74 mmol/L) D. Phosphorus level of 3.0 mg /L (0.97 mmol/L) ANSWER B. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss or base in the body fluids. Q. The nurse is caring for a client with several broken ribs. The client is most likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation B. Respiratory alkalosis from anxiety and hyperventilation C. Metabolic acidosis from calcium loss due to broken bones D. Metabolic alkalosis from taking analgesics containing base products ANSWER A. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is most often caused by hypoventilation The client with broken ribs will have difficulty with breathing adequately and is at risk for hypoventilation and resultant respiratory acidosis. Q. The health care provider has written these orders for a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. The patient's morning assessment reveals bounding peripheral pulses, a weight gain of 2 lb, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which order takes priority at this time? A. Weigh the patient every morning. B. Maintain accurate intake and output records C. Restrict fluids to 1500mL/ day. D. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push. ANSWER D. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push. Rationale: Bilateral moist crackles indicate fluid-filled alveoli, which interferes with gas exchange Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that will help mobilize the fluid in the lungs The other orders are important but are not urgent. Q. The nurse is evaluating and assessing a patient with a diagnosis of chronic emphysema. The patient is receiving oxygen at a flow rate of 5 L/min by nasal cannula. Which finding concerns the nurse immediately? A. Fine bibasilar crackles B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min C. Patient sitting up and leaning over the nightstand D. A large barrel chest ANSWER B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min Rationale: For patients with chronic emphysema, the stimulus to breathe is a low serum oxygen level (the normal stimulus is a high carbon dioxide level). This patient's oxygen flow is too high and is causing a high serum oxygen level, which results in a decreased respiratory rate. If the nurse does not intervene, the patient is at risk for respiratory arrest. Crackles, barrel chest, and assumption of a sitting position leaning over the nightstand are common in patients with chronic emphysema. Q. The nurse is providing care for a patient with recently diagnosed asthma. Which key points would the nurse be sure to include in the teaching plan for this patient? Select all that apply. A. Avoid potential environmental asthma triggers such as smoke B. Use the inhaler 30 minutes before exercising to prevent bronchospasm C. Wash all bedding in cold water to reduce and destroy dust mites D. Be sure to get at least 8 hours of rest and sleep every night E. Avoid foods prepared with monosodium glutamate F. Keep a symptom and intervention diary to learn specific triggers for your asthma ANSWER A. Avoid potential environmental asthma triggers such as smoke B. Use the inhaler 30 minutes before exercising to prevent bronchospasm D. Be sure to get at least 8 hours of rest and sleep every night E. Avoid foods prepared with monosodium glutamate F. Keep a symptom and intervention diary to learn specific triggers for your asthma Rationale: Bedding should be washed in hot water to destroy dust mites All of answers are accurate and appropriate for teaching Q. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which findings would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? Select all that apply. A. A low arterial PCO2 B. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray C. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise D. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray E. Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity ANSWER B. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray C. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise The nurse instructs a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and evaluates the teaching by asking the client about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse determines that the client understands if the client states that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to promote which outcome? A. Promote oxygen intake B. Strengthen the diaphragm C. Strengthen the intercostal muscles D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing facilitates maximal expiration for clients with obstructive lung disease. This type of breathing allows better expiration by increasing airway pressure that keeps air passages open during exhalation The nurse is teaching a client with emphysema about positions that help breathing during dyspneic episodes. The nurse instructs the client that which positions alleviate dyspnea? Select all that apply. A. Sitting up and leaning on a table B. Standing and leaning against a wall C. Lying supine with the feet elevated D. Sitting up with elbows resting on knees E. Lying on the back in a low-Fowler's position A. Sitting up and leaning on a table B. Standing and leaning against a wall D. Sitting up with elbows resting on knees Rationale: These allow for maximal chest expansion. The client should not lie on the back because it reduces movement of a large area of the client's chest wall. Sitting is better than standing, whenever possible. If no chair is available, leaning against a wall while standing allows accessory muscles to be used for breathing and not posture control. The nurse is caring for a client who is on strict bed rest and creates a plan of care with goals related to the prevention of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary emboli. Which nursing action is most helpful in preventing these disorders from developing? A. Restricting fluids B. Placing a pillow under the knees C. Encouraging active range-of-motion exercises D. Applying a heating pad to the lower extremities C. Encouraging active range-of-motion exercises Rationale: Clients at greatest risk for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary emboli are immobilized clients. Basic preventive measures include early ambulation, leg elevation, active leg exercises, elastic stockings, and intermittent pneumatic calf compression. Keeping the client well hydrated is essential because dehydration predisposes to clotting A pillow under the knees may cause venous stasis. Heat should NOT be applied without a primary health care provider's prescription. The nurse caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) anticipates which arterial blood gas (ABG) findings? A. pH, 7.40; Pa02, 90 mm Hg; CO2, 39 mEq/L; HCO3, 23 mEq/L B. pH, 7.32fi PaO2, 85 mm Hg; CO2, 57 mEq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L C. pH, 7.47; Pa02, 82 mm Hg; CO2, 30 mEq/L; HCO3, 31 mEq/L D. pH, 7.31; Pa02, 95 mm Hg; CO2, 22 mEq/L; HCO3, 19 mEq/L B. pH, 7.32fi PaO2, 85 mm Hg; CO2, 57 mEq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L Rationale: A client with COPD will exist in a state of respiratory acidosis. The emergency department nurse is monitoring a client who received treatment for a severe asthma attack. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status has worsened if which is noted on assessment? A. Diminished breath sounds B. Wheezing during inhalation C. Wheezing during exhalation D. Wheezing throughout the lung fields A. Diminished breath sounds Rationale: Diminished breath sounds may be an indication of severe obstruction and possibly respiratory failure. Wheezing is not a reliable manifestation to determine the severity of an asthma attack. For wheezing to occur, the client must be able to move sufficient air to produce breath sounds. A client with a history of heart failure is due for a morning dose of furosemide. Which serum potassium level, if noted in the client's laboratory report, should be reported before administering the dose of furosemide? A. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) B. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) C. 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) D. 4.8 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L) A. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in the adult is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). Administering furosemide to a client with a low potassium level and a history of cardiac problems could precipitate ventricular dysrhythmias. A client with hypertension has been told to maintain a diet low in sodium. The nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed should include which food item in a list provided to the client? A. Tomato soup B. Boiled shrimp C. Instant oatmeal D. Summer squash D. Summer squash Rationale: Foods that are lower in sodium include fruits and vegetables (summer squash) because they do not contain physiological saline. Highly processed or refined foods (tomato soup, instant oatmeal) are higher in sodium unless their food labels specifically state "low sodium" Saltwater fish and shellfish are high in sodium Which topics will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient who has been admitted with heart failure? Select all that apply. A. How to monitor and record daily weight B. Importance of stopping exercise if heart rate increases C. Symptoms of worsening heart failure D. Purpose of chronic antibiotic therapy E. How to read food labels for sodium content F. Date and time for follow-up appointments A. How to monitor and record daily weight C. Symptoms of worsening heart failure E. How to read food labels for sodium content F. Date and time for follow-up appointments Rationale: To avoid rehospitalization, topics that should be included when discharging a patient with heart failure include how to maintain a low-sodium diet, the purpose and common side effects of medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and beta-blockers, what to do if symptoms of worsening heart failure occur, and the scheduling of follow-up appointments. A patient who has just arrived in the emergency department reports substernal and left arm discomfort that has been going on for about 3 hours. Which laboratory test will be most useful in determining whether the nurse should anticipate implementing the acute coronary syndrome standard protocol? A. Creatine kinase MB level B. Troponin I level C. Myoglobin level D. C-reactive protein level B. Troponin I level Rationale: Cardiac troponin levels are elevated 3 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction (MI) and are very specific to cardiac muscle injury or infarction Creatine kinase MB and myoglobin levels also increase with MI, but creatine kinase levels take at least 6 hours to increase and myoglobin is nonspecific. Elevated C-reactive protein levels are a risk factor for coronary artery disease but are not useful in detecting acute injury or infarction The emergency department nurse is caring for a patient who was just admitted with left anterior chest pain, suggesting possible acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which action will the nurse take first? A. Insert an IV catheter. B. Auscultate heart sounds. C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. D. Draw blood for troponin I measurement. C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Rationale: The priority for a patient with unstable angina or Ml is treatment of pain. It is important to remember to assess vital signs before administering sublingual nitroglycerin. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with heart failure who is receiving captopril and spironolactone. Which laboratory value will be most important to monitor? A. Sodium level B. Blood glucose level C. Potassium level D. Alkaline phosphatase level C. Potassium level Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common adverse effect of both angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics A client is experiencing 8/10 incisional pain, resulting in a poor cough effort, and has course scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Medicate the patient with prescribed pain medication. b. Splint the patient’s chest during coughing. c. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer. d. Assess the patient’s oxygenation using a pulse oximetry. a When we look at the data in this question, the client is having a poor cough effort due to the pain. If we can take care of the pain, the client should be able to have a better cough effort, expel mucous, and the rhonchi would clear up. The other options might be interventions we would also perform, however, they would not resolve the problem. The nurse is worried that a patient who is not entirely reliable is being discharged home on therapy for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. What strategy is the best to use for this patient? a. IV drug administration b. Remain in the hospital c. Direct observation therapy d. Isolation c Direct observation therapy is the best way to ensure clients are taking their tuberculosis medications. The most important intervention we can do as nurses caring for clients with TB, is to ensure medication compliance. In direct observation therapy, a person drives to the client's house and administers the medication each day. The emergency department nurse is assessing a patient who has sustained a blunt injury to the right chest wall. Which findings indicate the presence of a pneumothorax? (Select all that apply) a. Decreased chest expansion on the right side b. The presence of a barrel chest c. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side d. Tachypnea e. Tachycardia a c d e Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side is correct because the lung is collapsed, so you will not hear lung sounds over that lung. Decreased chest expansion on the affected side is correct because again, the lung is collapsed and will not expand. Tachycardia and tachypnea will occur due to the lack of gas exchange. The heart will start pumping faster to try to perfuse the body with whatever oxygenated blood it has, and the respiratory rate will increase to try to get more oxygen in. The presence of barrel chest is not associated with a pneumothorax. It is a physiological change that we see in patients with COPD. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new tracheostomy requiring frequent suctioning. The nurse anticipates what possible clinical problems? (Select all that apply) a. Acute pain b. Hyponatremia c. Impaired gas exchange d. Fluid volume deficit e. Ineffective airway clearance acde Impaired gas exchange is correct due to consolidation in the lungs, leaving less available surface area in the alveoli for gas exchange. Ineffective airway clearance is correct due to the client having a new trach, requiring frequent suctioning. This indicates that the client cannot clear their own secretions. Acute pain is correct, due to having a new trach, and also due to pleuritic chest pain that can be anticipated in a client with pneumonia. Fluid volume deficit is correct, due to a presumed lack of intake due to the new trach combined with infection. Hyponatremia would not occur in this client. If the client is deficient of fluid, we may see hypernatremia. A client has been receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr. Which assessments indicate the client has fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply) a. Weak, thready pulses b. Stridor c. Distended neck veins d. S3 heart sound e. Pitting edema cde Distended neck veins, or JVD, is correct, and seen in fluid excess due to the increased fluid in the intravascular space. Pitting edema is correct. The increased volume causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, which pushes fluid out of the vessel and into the interstitial space, causing edema. S3 heart sound is correct. We hear this sound when there is excess fluid in the body. Stridor is incorrect. The adventitious sound we may hear in clients with fluid excess is crackles. Weak, thready pulse is incorrect. Because of the high volume and high pressure within the vasculature, clients with fluid excess will have bounding pulses. A nurse is assessing a client with fluid volume excess and a sodium level of 120 mEq/L. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) a. Dry mucous membranes b. Headache c. Tachycardia d. Confusion e. Hypotension bcd Tachycardia is correct due to the increased volume of fluid. When there is too much volume, the heart tries to pump harder and faster to get that fluid where it needs to go. Headache is correct due to cell swelling in the brain. Remember: water follows sodium and particles have pulling power. So when there isn't enough particles (sodium) intravascularly, fluid is going to leave the vessels and enter the cells, causing them to swell. Confusion is correct due to cellular swelling in the brain and the effect of low sodium on nerve functioning. Hypotension is incorrect and would be seen in fluid deficit. In fluid excess, we will see increased blood pressure due to the increased volume and pressure on the vessel walls. Dry mucous membranes is incorrect and would be seen in fluid deficit. Causes of hypervolemia include (Select all that apply) a. Increased intake of fluid and sodium b. Acute renal failure c. Diuretic therapy d. Potassium loss e. Chronic renal failure abe Hypervolemia = Fluid volume excess Causes include increased fluid/sodium intake, and both chronic and acute renal failure. When the kidneys don't work, regardless of if it's a chronic or acute problem, they cannot excrete fluid. Potassium loss is incorrect, and does not cause fluid volume excess. Diuretic therapy is incorrect. Diuretic therapy has the potential to cause fluid deficit. A nurse is caring for a female client admitted for severe nausea, vomiting, and copious diarrhea. What data reflects the client's condition? a. Urine specific gravity 1.005 b. Sodium 135 c. Serum osmolality 292 d. BUN 5 e. Hematocrit 56% e A client with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea would have fluid deficit, and we would expect all our labs that reflect volume (sodium, BUN, hematocrit, serum osmolality, and urine specific gravity) to be increased (concentrated). Hematocrit of 56% reflects hemoconcentration and is the correct answer. Osmolality and sodium are within normal limits. BUN and urine specific gravity are decreased, indicating fluid excess. A nurse is caring for a client whose potassium level is 3.0. What clinical manifestations are associated with this potassium level? (Select all that apply) a. Diarrhea b. Peaked T waves c. Constipation d. Leg cramps e. Shallow respirations cde When you think about hypokalemia, think low and slow. Weak, irregular pulses, flat T waves, decreased reflexes, cramping, muscle weakness (including diaphragm and intercostal muscles), shallow respirations, and slow GI motility, causing hypoactive bowel sounds and constipation. Peaked T waves is a manifestation of hypERkalemia. Diarrhea is a cause of hypokalemia, not a manifestation. Diarrhea is a manifestation of hypERkalemia. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Place the client on bedrest b. Monitor strict intake and output c. Obtain baseline weight d. Measure blood pressure d When you are evaluating a client with suspected fluid volume deficit, the data we need is the blood pressure. The blood pressure is the quickest evaluation of a client's fluid status. We will still obtain a baseline weight and monitor I/O's, but when you think about priority, you want to think about your ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), and fluid volume deficit is a circulation problem that needs to be identified (via BP) and addressed immediately. A nurse is caring for a client whose potassium level is 3.0. What interventions are in the nurse's plan of care? (Select all that apply) a. Increase potassium rich foods b. Administer sodium polystyrene by mouth c. Start a slow potassium drip IVPB at 10 mEq/hr d. Administer a diuretic e. Place client on a heart monitor ace A potassium of 3.0 is low, indicating a need for replacement. We can help the client increase potassium rich foods, administer potassium IV piggyback, and with either potassium imbalance, we need these clients on cardiac monitors. Administering polystyrene or a diuretic would further decreased potassium levels, and would be appropriate in a client with hypERkalemia A nurse is caring for a client whose potassium level is 6.0. What clinical manifestations does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) a. Irritability b. Diarrhea c. Flattened T waves d. Fatigue e. Abdominal cramping abe A nurse taking care of a client understands that which condition puts the client at risk for hyperkalemia a. Chronic kidney failure b. Diarrhea for the last four days c. Bowel obstruction with NG suction d. Newly diagnosed cirrhosis a A client has returned from the OR post-op thyroidectomy. The nurse knows to monitor for what clinical manifestations indicating an electrolyte imbalance? (Select all that apply) a. Restlessness/irritability b. Muscle flaccidity c. Tetany d. Negative Trousseau's sign e. Positive Chvostek's sign ace -increased excitability (hypocalcemia) A nurse recognizes that a client is at risk for respiratory alkalosis when which assessment findings are present? (Select all that apply) a. Anxiety b. Fever c. Narcotic use d. Hyperventilation e. Hyperkalemia f. Pain abdf A nurse is caring for a client admitted for severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The client's vital signs are: T 100.0, BP 86/50, HR 120, RR 22. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Check client's oxygen saturation b. Start a 0.9% normal saline infusion c. Administer 3% normal saline d. Auscultate bowel sounds b A nurse is caring for a client with metabolic alkalosis. The nurse knows a common cause of this imbalance is: a. Renal failure b. Hyperventilation c. NG suctioning d. High altitude c -sucking out stomach acid A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Give 25 mcg of Fentanyl IVP b. Place the client on a cardiac monitor c. Start a 0.9% normal saline infusion d. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather d A nurse caring for a client with COPD can expect to assess what clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply) a. Prolonged expiration b. Increased AP chest diameter c. Clubbing of the fingers d. Orthopnea e. Bradypnea abcd A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. What interventions are included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply) a. Monitor the water seal chamber for tidaling b. Milk the tubing to facilitate drainage c. Clamp the tubing when the client is ambulating d. Ensure tubing has no kinks or obstruction e. Maintain the client in Fowler's position ade A client presents with a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. An elevated D-dimer indicates a pulmonary embolism. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Gain IV access and send client to CT b. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather c. Place client on a cardiac monitor d. Assess the client's lung sounds b