NR601 / NR-601 Final Exam Study Set Q & A: Primary Care of
the Maturing & Aged Family Practicum – Chamberlain Actual
Exam Complete Rationales | Geriatric Primary Care | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Physiologic Changes & Common Geriatric Conditions
Q1: Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system include which of the following?
A. Increased arterial compliance
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure
C. Left ventricular wall thickening [CORRECT]
D. Increased maximal heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. As we age, the left ventricular wall tends to thicken due
to chronic afterload from stiffening arteries. Remember that aging affects the heart by
reducing compliance, not increasing it, and maximal heart rate actually drops rather
than rises.
Q2: When evaluating kidney function in an older adult, which statement is most
accurate?
A. Serum creatinine alone reliably reflects GFR in older adults
B. A stable creatinine may mask significant renal decline [CORRECT]
C. GFR typically increases after age 65
D. Creatinine clearance is rarely affected by muscle mass
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. In caring for older adults, we prioritize remembering
that muscle mass drops with age, so serum creatinine can look normal even when GFR
has fallen substantially. That aligns with why we often use Cockcroft-Gault or check
cystatin C when we're concerned.
,Q3: Which neurologic change is considered a normal part of aging rather than a sign of
disease?
A. Progressive memory loss affecting daily function
B. Slower processing speed [CORRECT]
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Rapid decline in executive function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. It's common for processing speed to slow a bit with
age, but significant memory loss, hallucinations, or rapid executive decline always
warrant further workup. In caring for older adults, we prioritize distinguishing normal
aging from pathologic changes.
Q4: A 78-year-old woman is brought to clinic by her daughter, who reports she "just isn't
herself" after a urinary tract infection last week. The patient is alert but distractible, has
impaired attention, and her symptoms fluctuate throughout the day. Her baseline MMSE
last year was 28/30. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Delirium [CORRECT]
C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
D. Depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The acute onset, fluctuating course, and inattention
after an infection are classic for delirium. Remember that aging affects the brain's
vulnerability to insults like infection, and a previously normal cognition makes an acute
process like delirium far more likely than a new neurodegenerative disease.
Q5: A 76-year-old man reports two falls in the past month. His exam is notable for a
positive Romberg test, decreased proprioception in his feet, and 4/5 hip flexor strength
bilaterally. His home has throw rugs and poor lighting. Which factor is most modifiable
to reduce his fall risk?
A. His age
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Throw rugs and poor lighting [CORRECT]
D. Mild hip weakness
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The best answer is C. While we can't change his age and neuropathy is tough
to reverse, environmental hazards like throw rugs and poor lighting are things we can fix
today. That aligns with fall prevention strategies—always look for the modifiable pieces
first, especially in the home environment.
Q6: An 82-year-old nursing home resident with a stage 2 pressure injury on her sacrum
has been improving with standard wound care. Today the nurse notes a shallow open
ulcer with a red-pink wound bed and no slough. Which stage best describes this healing
wound?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2 [CORRECT]
C. Stage 3
D. Unstageable
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. A shallow open ulcer with a viable red-pink wound bed
and no slough fits stage 2. Remember that aging affects skin integrity and healing time,
but the staging criteria stay the same—look at the deepest visible tissue layer.
Q7: A 79-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when she coughs or sneezes. She
denies urgency, nocturia, or dysuria. Pelvic exam reveals mild cystocele. Which is the
first-line management?
A. Oxybutynin
B. Pelvic floor muscle exercises [CORRECT]
C. Tolterodine
D. Midurethral sling surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Stress incontinence from increased intra-abdominal
pressure responds best to pelvic floor strengthening as first-line. Oxybutynin and
tolterodine are for urge incontinence and carry anticholinergic side effects we'd rather
avoid in older adults if we can.
Q8: During a home health visit, you assess an 81-year-old man as frail using the Fried
criteria. He has unintentional weight loss, exhaustion, weak grip strength, slow walking
speed, and low physical activity. Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. High-intensity interval training
the Maturing & Aged Family Practicum – Chamberlain Actual
Exam Complete Rationales | Geriatric Primary Care | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Physiologic Changes & Common Geriatric Conditions
Q1: Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system include which of the following?
A. Increased arterial compliance
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure
C. Left ventricular wall thickening [CORRECT]
D. Increased maximal heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. As we age, the left ventricular wall tends to thicken due
to chronic afterload from stiffening arteries. Remember that aging affects the heart by
reducing compliance, not increasing it, and maximal heart rate actually drops rather
than rises.
Q2: When evaluating kidney function in an older adult, which statement is most
accurate?
A. Serum creatinine alone reliably reflects GFR in older adults
B. A stable creatinine may mask significant renal decline [CORRECT]
C. GFR typically increases after age 65
D. Creatinine clearance is rarely affected by muscle mass
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. In caring for older adults, we prioritize remembering
that muscle mass drops with age, so serum creatinine can look normal even when GFR
has fallen substantially. That aligns with why we often use Cockcroft-Gault or check
cystatin C when we're concerned.
,Q3: Which neurologic change is considered a normal part of aging rather than a sign of
disease?
A. Progressive memory loss affecting daily function
B. Slower processing speed [CORRECT]
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Rapid decline in executive function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. It's common for processing speed to slow a bit with
age, but significant memory loss, hallucinations, or rapid executive decline always
warrant further workup. In caring for older adults, we prioritize distinguishing normal
aging from pathologic changes.
Q4: A 78-year-old woman is brought to clinic by her daughter, who reports she "just isn't
herself" after a urinary tract infection last week. The patient is alert but distractible, has
impaired attention, and her symptoms fluctuate throughout the day. Her baseline MMSE
last year was 28/30. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Delirium [CORRECT]
C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
D. Depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The acute onset, fluctuating course, and inattention
after an infection are classic for delirium. Remember that aging affects the brain's
vulnerability to insults like infection, and a previously normal cognition makes an acute
process like delirium far more likely than a new neurodegenerative disease.
Q5: A 76-year-old man reports two falls in the past month. His exam is notable for a
positive Romberg test, decreased proprioception in his feet, and 4/5 hip flexor strength
bilaterally. His home has throw rugs and poor lighting. Which factor is most modifiable
to reduce his fall risk?
A. His age
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Throw rugs and poor lighting [CORRECT]
D. Mild hip weakness
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The best answer is C. While we can't change his age and neuropathy is tough
to reverse, environmental hazards like throw rugs and poor lighting are things we can fix
today. That aligns with fall prevention strategies—always look for the modifiable pieces
first, especially in the home environment.
Q6: An 82-year-old nursing home resident with a stage 2 pressure injury on her sacrum
has been improving with standard wound care. Today the nurse notes a shallow open
ulcer with a red-pink wound bed and no slough. Which stage best describes this healing
wound?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2 [CORRECT]
C. Stage 3
D. Unstageable
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. A shallow open ulcer with a viable red-pink wound bed
and no slough fits stage 2. Remember that aging affects skin integrity and healing time,
but the staging criteria stay the same—look at the deepest visible tissue layer.
Q7: A 79-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when she coughs or sneezes. She
denies urgency, nocturia, or dysuria. Pelvic exam reveals mild cystocele. Which is the
first-line management?
A. Oxybutynin
B. Pelvic floor muscle exercises [CORRECT]
C. Tolterodine
D. Midurethral sling surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Stress incontinence from increased intra-abdominal
pressure responds best to pelvic floor strengthening as first-line. Oxybutynin and
tolterodine are for urge incontinence and carry anticholinergic side effects we'd rather
avoid in older adults if we can.
Q8: During a home health visit, you assess an 81-year-old man as frail using the Fried
criteria. He has unintentional weight loss, exhaustion, weak grip strength, slow walking
speed, and low physical activity. Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. High-intensity interval training
