FNP PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS 2026
▶ A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 days after a
purified protein derivative (PPD) test. What minimum size of induration
would be considered posi- tive for this patient?
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm. Answer: C) 10 mm
The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48
hours after the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and
measure 10 mm or greater to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration
(firmness with palpation) must be present. If the site has erythema but no
induration, result would be negative. Color is not important.
▶ All of the following are correct statements regarding the role of the
person named in a durable power of attorney except:
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the patient's life such as
financial
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life support when that life
support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions.
Answer: D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's
decisions
The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated
by the patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions
regarding the patient's private affairs in the event that the patient becomes
incompetent and unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the
ability to override the agent's decision.
,▶ All of the following are true statements regarding Munchausen syndrome
except:
A) It is considered a mental illness
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and
denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention from health care
providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along with a past history
of
frequent hospitalizations. Answer: B) The patient has a medical illness that
causes an anxiety reaction and denial
Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes
a medical illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers.
These patients commonly use the emergency department frequently to
gain attention.
▶ Which of the following antihypertensive medications should the nurse
practitioner avoid when treating patients with emphysema?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics. Answer: C) Beta-blockers
Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema.
Studies have shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in
1 second (FEV1), increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of
bronchodilator response to beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective
beta- blockers and high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
▶ A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms
but denies difficulty swallowing or breathing. She reports a family history of
allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the following interventions is most
appropriate?
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO
QID
,C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911. Answer: A) Perform a complete and thorough history
Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be
performed to determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied
difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical
emergency to require calling 911.
▶ Which of the following findings is most likely in young primigravidas with
pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency. Answer: B) Edema of the face and the upper
extremities
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include
edema of the face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision,
elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
▶ Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 deficiency
anemia?
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica
B) An abnormal neurological exam
C) A vegan diet
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet. Answer: D) Tingling and numbness
of both feet
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated.
Symptoms of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in
fingers and toes, difficulty walking, mood changes or depression, memory
loss, disorientation, and dementia.
▶ A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida reveals abnormally
low lev- els of the alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human
chorionic gonad- otropin. Which of the following interventions is the best
choice for this patient?
, A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use. Answer: A) Order an
ultrasound
Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of
human chorionic gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An
ultrasound should be ordered to further evaluate the fetus for
characteristics of Down syndrome and/or fetal demise.
▶ All of the following are true statements about diverticula except:
A) Diverticula are located in the colon
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacteria
D) Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecommended.
Answer: C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative
bacte-
ria
Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram-
positive bacteria.
▶ Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for
which of the following infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease). Answer: B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for
Chlamydia trachomatis.
▶ Kyphosis is a late sign of:
A) Old age
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteoporosis
AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS 2026
▶ A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 days after a
purified protein derivative (PPD) test. What minimum size of induration
would be considered posi- tive for this patient?
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm. Answer: C) 10 mm
The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48
hours after the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and
measure 10 mm or greater to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration
(firmness with palpation) must be present. If the site has erythema but no
induration, result would be negative. Color is not important.
▶ All of the following are correct statements regarding the role of the
person named in a durable power of attorney except:
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the patient's life such as
financial
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life support when that life
support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions.
Answer: D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's
decisions
The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated
by the patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions
regarding the patient's private affairs in the event that the patient becomes
incompetent and unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the
ability to override the agent's decision.
,▶ All of the following are true statements regarding Munchausen syndrome
except:
A) It is considered a mental illness
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and
denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention from health care
providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along with a past history
of
frequent hospitalizations. Answer: B) The patient has a medical illness that
causes an anxiety reaction and denial
Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes
a medical illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers.
These patients commonly use the emergency department frequently to
gain attention.
▶ Which of the following antihypertensive medications should the nurse
practitioner avoid when treating patients with emphysema?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics. Answer: C) Beta-blockers
Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema.
Studies have shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in
1 second (FEV1), increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of
bronchodilator response to beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective
beta- blockers and high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
▶ A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms
but denies difficulty swallowing or breathing. She reports a family history of
allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the following interventions is most
appropriate?
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO
QID
,C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911. Answer: A) Perform a complete and thorough history
Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be
performed to determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied
difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical
emergency to require calling 911.
▶ Which of the following findings is most likely in young primigravidas with
pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency. Answer: B) Edema of the face and the upper
extremities
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include
edema of the face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision,
elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
▶ Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 deficiency
anemia?
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica
B) An abnormal neurological exam
C) A vegan diet
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet. Answer: D) Tingling and numbness
of both feet
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated.
Symptoms of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in
fingers and toes, difficulty walking, mood changes or depression, memory
loss, disorientation, and dementia.
▶ A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida reveals abnormally
low lev- els of the alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human
chorionic gonad- otropin. Which of the following interventions is the best
choice for this patient?
, A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use. Answer: A) Order an
ultrasound
Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of
human chorionic gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An
ultrasound should be ordered to further evaluate the fetus for
characteristics of Down syndrome and/or fetal demise.
▶ All of the following are true statements about diverticula except:
A) Diverticula are located in the colon
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacteria
D) Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecommended.
Answer: C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative
bacte-
ria
Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram-
positive bacteria.
▶ Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for
which of the following infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease). Answer: B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for
Chlamydia trachomatis.
▶ Kyphosis is a late sign of:
A) Old age
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteoporosis
