Actual Questions Practice Exam | INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Below are 150 multiple-choice questions designed to help you prepare for the ICEV Elanco Veterinary Medical
Applications Certification exam. The questions cover key concepts in veterinary medicine, pharmacology,
diagnostics, treatment protocols, and medical applications. Each question includes the correct answer in italic
followed by a concise rationale
1. A 5-year-old neutered male Labrador Retriever presents with lethargy, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Serum biochemistry shows hyperglycemia (350 mg/dL) and mild hypercholesterolemia. Which
confirmatory test is most appropriate to distinguish between diabetes mellitus and stress-induced
hyperglycemia?
A. Serum fructosamine
B. Urine glucose dipstick
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Serum amylase
Answer A: Serum fructosamine
Rationale: Fructosamine reflects average blood glucose over the prior 1-2 weeks, unaffected by acute
stress, unlike a single glucose reading.
2. In a horse with acute laminitis, which radiographic finding is the earliest indicator of distal
phalangeal rotation?
A. Widening of the lamellar zone
B. Gas lucencies within the hoof wall
C. Divergence of the dorsal hoof wall from the third phalanx
D. Sinking of the third phalanx relative to the coronary band
Answer C: Divergence of the dorsal hoof wall from the third phalanx
Rationale: Divergence (increased distance between the dorsal hoof wall and P3) precedes obvious
rotation or sinking in early laminitis.
3. Which class of antiarrhythmic drug is lidocaine, and what is its primary mechanism in treating
ventricular tachycardia in dogs?
A. Class I - sodium channel blockade
B. Class II - beta-adrenergic blockade
C. Class III - potassium channel blockade
D. Class IV - calcium channel blockade
Answer A: Class I - sodium channel blockade
Rationale: Lidocaine is a Class Ib antiarrhythmic that binds fast sodium channels, reducing automaticity
in Purkinje fibers and ventricular myocardium.
,4. A cow has sudden onset of blindness, ataxia, and circling 2 hours after being moved to a new
pasture containing young oats. Rumen pH is 5.2. What is the most likely toxin?
A. Nitrate
B. Oxalate
C. Sulfate
D. Prussic acid (cyanide)
Answer D: Prussic acid (cyanide)
Rationale: Young oats and sorghum can produce cyanogenic glycosides; rapid rumen fermentation
releases cyanide, causing neurologic signs and metabolic acidosis.
5. Which surgical approach is preferred for an adrenal tumor (pheochromocytoma) in a dog to
minimize intraoperative hypertension?
A. Ventral midline with preoperative phenoxybenzamine
B. Right flank laparotomy with intraoperative phentolamine
C. Paracostal incision with no pretreatment
D. Laparoscopic adrenalectomy with dobutamine infusion
Answer A: Ventral midline with preoperative phenoxybenzamine
Rationale: Phenoxybenzamine blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors, preventing catecholamine surges
during tumor manipulation; ventral midline allows bilateral access.
6. A feline patient is receiving high-dose furosemide for congestive heart failure. Which electrolyte
abnormality is most likely to induce digoxin toxicity even at therapeutic digoxin levels?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer C: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases myocyte binding of digoxin, enhancing toxicity; furosemide causes
potassium wasting, so potassium status must be monitored.
7. What is the primary mechanism of action of robenacoxib (Onsior) in controlling postoperative pain
in cats?
A. COX-1 sparing and selective COX-2 inhibition
B. Non-selective COX inhibition with central NMDA blockade
C. Mu-opioid receptor agonism
D. Sodium channel blockade in peripheral nerves
Answer A: COX-1 sparing and selective COX-2 inhibition
, Rationale: Robenacoxib is a highly selective COX-2 inhibitor, reducing inflammation and pain while
preserving COX-1 mediated gastrointestinal protection.
8. A 10-year-old cat has a thyroid scintigraphy showing a single hyperfunctional nodule in the right
lobe and a suppressed contralateral lobe. Which treatment option is most likely to cause permanent
hypothyroidism while resolving hyperthyroidism?
A. Bilateral thyroidectomy
B. Radioactive iodine (131I) at standard dose
C. Methimazole transdermal gel
D. Unilateral right thyroidectomy
Answer D: Unilateral right thyroidectomy
Rationale: Removing only the hyperfunctional nodule leaves atrophic contralateral tissue that may not
recover, leading to iatrogenic hypothyroidism.
9. Which hematologic change is most characteristic of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) in
dogs on a fresh blood smear?
A. Acanthocytes
B. Spherocytes
C. Schistocytes
D. Eccentrocytes
Answer B: Spherocytes
Rationale: Spherocytes are small, dense red cells lacking central pallor, formed by partial phagocytosis
of antibody-coated RBCs; hallmark of IMHA.
10. A sheep farmer reports sudden death in several lambs after a storm. Necropsy reveals pale
muscles and dark urine. What dietary mineral deficiency is most likely?
A. Copper
B. Selenium
C. Cobalt
D. Manganese
Answer B: Selenium
Rationale: Selenium deficiency causes white muscle disease (nutritional myodegeneration), often
precipitated by rapid growth or stress like stormy weather.
11. Which drug is the first-line treatment for canine parvoviral enteritis to control secondary bacterial
translocation?
A. Metronidazole
B. Ampicillin combined with enrofloxacin
C. Doxycycline alone
D. Cephalexin