NR605 Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-
Mental Health across the Lifespan Exam 3 Version
1 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question
1. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who reports he is often ‘on
the go,’ frequently interrupts others, and cannot finish his homework. According to
DSM-5 criteria, what is the minimum duration these symptoms must be present to
diagnose ADHD?
A. 3 months
B. 12 months
C. 9 months
D. 6 months
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: DSM-5 criteria for ADHD require symptoms of inattention
and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity to persist for at least 6 months. These symptoms
must be inconsistent with the developmental level and negatively impact social and
academic activities. Furthermore, the symptoms must be present in at least two
different settings, such as home and school.
,2. Which of the following is considered a primary social deficit in children diagnosed
with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
A. Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity
B. Delayed physical growth
C. Lack of motor coordination
D. Increased verbal fluency
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity are a core diagnostic
feature of Autism Spectrum Disorder. This often manifests as a failure of normal
back-and-forth conversation or a reduced sharing of interests and emotions.
Clinicians must observe these persistent deficits across multiple contexts to provide
an accurate diagnosis.
3. A 15-year-old girl presents with a BMI of 16.5, intense fear of gaining weight, and
Lanugo on her skin. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Anorexia Nervosa, Restricting Type
C. Binge-Eating Disorder
D. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
,Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by a significantly low body
weight relative to age and sex, accompanied by an intense fear of weight gain.
Lanugo, or fine downy hair, is a physical adaptation to starvation and cold seen in
severe cases. Unlike bulimia, the primary indicator here is the restriction of energy
intake leading to significantly low weight.
4. What is the FDA-approved black box warning for SSRIs when prescribed to children
and adolescents?
A. Increased risk of weight gain
B. Risk of liver toxicity
C. Increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior
D. Risk of permanent growth retardation
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: The FDA issued a black box warning for Selective Serotonin
Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) in 2004 regarding the increased risk of suicidal
thoughts and behaviors in pediatric patients. While these medications are effective
for depression and anxiety, they require close monitoring, especially during the first
few weeks of treatment. Families should be educated to watch for changes in
behavior, hostility, or agitation.
, 5. A 7-year-old child displays persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper
outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. These symptoms occur about 4
times a week in multiple settings. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Conduct Disorder
D. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was
introduced to address the over-diagnosis of bipolar disorder in children. It requires
severe recurrent temper outbursts and a persistently irritable or angry mood
between outbursts. Symptoms must be present for 12 or more months and must
start before the age of 10.
6. A child is diagnosed with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD). Which of the
following behaviors is most characteristic of this disorder?
A. Aggression toward people and animals
B. Theft and deceitfulness
C. Argumentative and defiant behavior toward authority figures
Mental Health across the Lifespan Exam 3 Version
1 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question
1. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who reports he is often ‘on
the go,’ frequently interrupts others, and cannot finish his homework. According to
DSM-5 criteria, what is the minimum duration these symptoms must be present to
diagnose ADHD?
A. 3 months
B. 12 months
C. 9 months
D. 6 months
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: DSM-5 criteria for ADHD require symptoms of inattention
and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity to persist for at least 6 months. These symptoms
must be inconsistent with the developmental level and negatively impact social and
academic activities. Furthermore, the symptoms must be present in at least two
different settings, such as home and school.
,2. Which of the following is considered a primary social deficit in children diagnosed
with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
A. Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity
B. Delayed physical growth
C. Lack of motor coordination
D. Increased verbal fluency
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity are a core diagnostic
feature of Autism Spectrum Disorder. This often manifests as a failure of normal
back-and-forth conversation or a reduced sharing of interests and emotions.
Clinicians must observe these persistent deficits across multiple contexts to provide
an accurate diagnosis.
3. A 15-year-old girl presents with a BMI of 16.5, intense fear of gaining weight, and
Lanugo on her skin. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Anorexia Nervosa, Restricting Type
C. Binge-Eating Disorder
D. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
,Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by a significantly low body
weight relative to age and sex, accompanied by an intense fear of weight gain.
Lanugo, or fine downy hair, is a physical adaptation to starvation and cold seen in
severe cases. Unlike bulimia, the primary indicator here is the restriction of energy
intake leading to significantly low weight.
4. What is the FDA-approved black box warning for SSRIs when prescribed to children
and adolescents?
A. Increased risk of weight gain
B. Risk of liver toxicity
C. Increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior
D. Risk of permanent growth retardation
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: The FDA issued a black box warning for Selective Serotonin
Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) in 2004 regarding the increased risk of suicidal
thoughts and behaviors in pediatric patients. While these medications are effective
for depression and anxiety, they require close monitoring, especially during the first
few weeks of treatment. Families should be educated to watch for changes in
behavior, hostility, or agitation.
, 5. A 7-year-old child displays persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper
outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. These symptoms occur about 4
times a week in multiple settings. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Conduct Disorder
D. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was
introduced to address the over-diagnosis of bipolar disorder in children. It requires
severe recurrent temper outbursts and a persistently irritable or angry mood
between outbursts. Symptoms must be present for 12 or more months and must
start before the age of 10.
6. A child is diagnosed with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD). Which of the
following behaviors is most characteristic of this disorder?
A. Aggression toward people and animals
B. Theft and deceitfulness
C. Argumentative and defiant behavior toward authority figures
