NSG4100 | NSG4100 Nursing Practice - Adult
Health III Exam 3 Version 1 | Questions with
Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each
Question | Galen
1. A nurse is triaging patients after a mass casualty incident. Which patient should be
assigned a ‘Red’ tag?
A. A patient with a minor laceration on the forearm.
B. A patient with a closed fracture of the tibia and fibula.
C. A patient with no pulse and fixed, dilated pupils.
D. A patient with a sucking chest wound and respiratory distress.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A red tag indicates an immediate threat to life that requires
priority treatment. A sucking chest wound causes critical respiratory compromise
but is potentially survivable with rapid intervention. Patients with no pulse are
tagged black, while minor injuries are tagged green or yellow.
2. Which assessment finding is an early sign of septic shock in a patient with a known
infection?
A. Hypothermia and bradycardia.
B. Cold, clammy skin and cyanosis.
,C. Tachycardia and warm, flushed skin.
D. Severe hypotension and oliguria.
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Early or ‘warm’ shock in sepsis is characterized by a high
cardiac output and vasodilation. This leads to warm, flushed skin and a rapid heart
rate as the body attempts to compensate. Recognizing these signs early allows for
faster fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
3. When using the Parkland formula for a patient with 40% total body surface area
(TBSA) burns, how much of the total calculated fluid should be given in the first 8
hours?
A. One-quarter of the total volume.
B. One-half of the total volume.
C. One-third of the total volume.
D. The entire calculated volume.
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The Parkland formula dictates that half of the total 24-hour
fluid requirement be administered in the first 8 hours post-injury. The remaining
,half is then distributed over the subsequent 16 hours. This aggressive fluid
resuscitation is vital to prevent hypovolemic shock in burn patients.
4. A patient’s blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the calculated Mean Arterial
Pressure (MAP)?
A. 60 mmHg
B. 70 mmHg
C. 75 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The formula for MAP is (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. In
this case, (90 + 120) / 3 equals 70 mmHg. A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is typically
required to ensure adequate organ perfusion.
5. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm sounding. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Call the respiratory therapist immediately.
B. Silence the alarm and document the event.
C. Increase the oxygen concentration to 100%.
D. Assess the patient for airway obstruction or biting the tube.
, Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: High-pressure alarms often occur due to secretions, biting of
the ET tube, or the patient coughing. The nurse must first assess the patient’s airway
and physiological status to determine the cause. Quick intervention such as
suctioning or providing a bite block can often resolve the issue.
6. A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is placed in the prone
position. What is the primary rationale for this intervention?
A. To improve drainage of oral secretions.
B. To reduce the risk of pressure ulcers on the back.
C. To decrease the patient’s work of breathing.
D. To improve oxygenation by recruiting collapsed alveoli in posterior lung zones.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Prone positioning helps redistribute blood flow and
ventilation to less damaged lung areas. It specifically improves oxygenation by
recruiting alveoli in the dorsal regions of the lungs that are often collapsed in the
supine position. This is a common evidence-based practice for severe ARDS
management.
Health III Exam 3 Version 1 | Questions with
Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each
Question | Galen
1. A nurse is triaging patients after a mass casualty incident. Which patient should be
assigned a ‘Red’ tag?
A. A patient with a minor laceration on the forearm.
B. A patient with a closed fracture of the tibia and fibula.
C. A patient with no pulse and fixed, dilated pupils.
D. A patient with a sucking chest wound and respiratory distress.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A red tag indicates an immediate threat to life that requires
priority treatment. A sucking chest wound causes critical respiratory compromise
but is potentially survivable with rapid intervention. Patients with no pulse are
tagged black, while minor injuries are tagged green or yellow.
2. Which assessment finding is an early sign of septic shock in a patient with a known
infection?
A. Hypothermia and bradycardia.
B. Cold, clammy skin and cyanosis.
,C. Tachycardia and warm, flushed skin.
D. Severe hypotension and oliguria.
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Early or ‘warm’ shock in sepsis is characterized by a high
cardiac output and vasodilation. This leads to warm, flushed skin and a rapid heart
rate as the body attempts to compensate. Recognizing these signs early allows for
faster fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
3. When using the Parkland formula for a patient with 40% total body surface area
(TBSA) burns, how much of the total calculated fluid should be given in the first 8
hours?
A. One-quarter of the total volume.
B. One-half of the total volume.
C. One-third of the total volume.
D. The entire calculated volume.
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The Parkland formula dictates that half of the total 24-hour
fluid requirement be administered in the first 8 hours post-injury. The remaining
,half is then distributed over the subsequent 16 hours. This aggressive fluid
resuscitation is vital to prevent hypovolemic shock in burn patients.
4. A patient’s blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the calculated Mean Arterial
Pressure (MAP)?
A. 60 mmHg
B. 70 mmHg
C. 75 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The formula for MAP is (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. In
this case, (90 + 120) / 3 equals 70 mmHg. A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is typically
required to ensure adequate organ perfusion.
5. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm sounding. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Call the respiratory therapist immediately.
B. Silence the alarm and document the event.
C. Increase the oxygen concentration to 100%.
D. Assess the patient for airway obstruction or biting the tube.
, Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: High-pressure alarms often occur due to secretions, biting of
the ET tube, or the patient coughing. The nurse must first assess the patient’s airway
and physiological status to determine the cause. Quick intervention such as
suctioning or providing a bite block can often resolve the issue.
6. A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is placed in the prone
position. What is the primary rationale for this intervention?
A. To improve drainage of oral secretions.
B. To reduce the risk of pressure ulcers on the back.
C. To decrease the patient’s work of breathing.
D. To improve oxygenation by recruiting collapsed alveoli in posterior lung zones.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Prone positioning helps redistribute blood flow and
ventilation to less damaged lung areas. It specifically improves oxygenation by
recruiting alveoli in the dorsal regions of the lungs that are often collapsed in the
supine position. This is a common evidence-based practice for severe ARDS
management.
