ATI TEAS 7 Nursing Science Exam 2026/2027
Questions with Answers and Rationales
Introduction
This comprehensive review includes 320 multiple-choice questions to help you prepare for the ATI TEAS 7 Nursing
Science Exam 2026/2027, focusing on Anatomy, Physiology, and Life Sciences. The questions cover all major body
systems, cellular biology, genetics, metabolism, and key physiological processes. . Each question is followed by the
correct answer in italic and a detailed rationale. Use this resource to assess your knowledge and identify areas for
further study.
1. A patient has a mutation that prevents the reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal
muscle cells. Which of the following would be most directly impaired?
A. Action potential propagation along the sarcolemma
B. Cross-bridge detachment and muscle relaxation
C. Release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
D. Binding of troponin to tropomyosin
Answer B: Cross-bridge detachment and muscle relaxation
Rationale: Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) actively pumps calcium back into its stores during relaxation using Ca²⁺-
ATPase. If reuptake is impaired, intracellular calcium remains high, preventing troponin from releasing
tropomyosin, so cross-bridges stay attached, causing prolonged contraction or spasm. Action potentials, ACh
release, and troponin binding are upstream or unrelated to SR reuptake.
2. Which of the following best describes the primary role of the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in
blood pressure regulation?
A. Converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
B. Converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Directly constricting afferent arterioles
D. Stimulating aldosterone secretion from the adrenal medulla
Answer B: Converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Rationale: ACE is located primarily on endothelial cells of pulmonary capillaries. It cleaves two amino acids from
angiotensin I to produce angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates aldosterone release from the
adrenal cortex (not medulla). Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
3. A researcher finds that a novel virus infects only cells expressing CD4 receptor and either CCR5 or CXCR4 co-
receptors. This virus most likely targets:
A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. Helper T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
Answer B: Helper T lymphocytes
Rationale: Helper T cells (CD4+ T cells) express CD4 receptors and chemokine co-receptors CCR5 or CXCR4, which
are the entry points for HIV. Cytotoxic T cells express CD8; B cells and NK cells lack CD4. The description matches
HIV tropism.
,4. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from production
to reabsorption?
A. Choroid plexus → lateral ventricles → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space → arachnoid
granulations
B. Lateral ventricles → choroid plexus → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → arachnoid granulations →
subarachnoid space
C. Subarachnoid space → choroid plexus → fourth ventricle → third ventricle → lateral ventricles → arachnoid
granulations
D. Arachnoid granulations → subarachnoid space → fourth ventricle → third ventricle → lateral ventricles →
choroid plexus
Answer A: Choroid plexus → lateral ventricles → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space →
arachnoid granulations
Rationale: CSF is produced by the choroid plexus within the lateral ventricles, flows through the interventricular
foramina to the third ventricle, then through the cerebral aqueduct to the fourth ventricle, exits to the
subarachnoid space via foramina of Luschka and Magendie, and is reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations into
venous blood.
5. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the pars distalis of the anterior pituitary and directly acts on
gonads to stimulate gametogenesis?
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Inhibin
Answer B: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Rationale: FSH directly acts on the ovaries (stimulates follicular development and estrogen production) and testes
(stimulates spermatogenesis via Sertoli cells). LH acts on theca cells and Leydig cells; GnRH is hypothalamic;
inhibin is gonadal feedback hormone.
6. A patient has damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve. Which of the
following clinical findings is most likely?
A. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
B. Ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis with hoarseness
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Impaired gag reflex on the right side
Answer B: Ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis with hoarseness
Rationale: The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid.
Unilateral damage causes ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis, resulting in hoarseness. Taste is via facial nerve (chorda
tympani); bradycardia/hypotension from vagal efferents; gag reflex involves glossopharyngeal and vagus but not
specifically recurrent laryngeal.
,7. In the corneal reflex, touching the cornea causes blinking. Which cranial nerves are the afferent and efferent
limbs, respectively?
A. CN V1 (ophthalmic) and CN VII (facial)
B. CN V2 (maxillary) and CN III (oculomotor)
C. CN V1 and CN III
D. CN II and CN VII
Answer A: CN V1 (ophthalmic) and CN VII (facial)
Rationale: Afferent limb is the ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve (CN V1) sensing corneal touch. Efferent
limb is the facial nerve (CN VII) causing orbicularis oculi contraction (blink). CN III is for pupil and eye movement,
not blinking.
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Frank-Starling mechanism is correct?
A. It describes the relationship between heart rate and stroke volume.
B. Increased venous return leads to increased end-diastolic volume and increased force of contraction.
C. It is mediated primarily by sympathetic nervous system activation.
D. It explains why afterload reduction decreases stroke volume.
Answer B: Increased venous return leads to increased end-diastolic volume and increased force of contraction
Rationale: Frank-Starling states that the heart pumps whatever volume it receives; greater preload (EDV)
stretches cardiac myocytes, increasing overlap of actin and myosin and thus contractile force. It is intrinsic, not
neural. Afterload reduction typically increases stroke volume.
9. A 65-year-old man has difficulty rising from a chair and climbing stairs. His serum creatine kinase is normal. A
muscle biopsy shows rimmed vacuoles and eosinophilic inclusions. Which condition is most likely?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Inclusion body myositis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Answer B: Inclusion body myositis
Rationale: Inclusion body myositis (IBM) presents with proximal and distal weakness, normal or mildly elevated
CK, and biopsy shows rimmed vacuoles and inclusions. Duchenne presents in childhood with very high CK;
myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton show neuromuscular junction defects without these histologic findings.
10. In the kidney, which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water in the absence of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH)?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
, B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Answer D: Collecting duct
Rationale: The collecting duct is permeable to water only when ADH is present, inserting aquaporin-2 channels.
The proximal tubule and descending limb are always permeable; the thick ascending limb is always impermeable
(diluting segment).
11. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the hepatic portal system?
A. To deliver oxygen-rich blood directly to hepatocytes
B. To carry nutrients and absorbed substances from the digestive tract to the liver for processing
C. To drain deoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava
D. To regulate systemic blood pressure via the release of angiotensinogen
Answer B: To carry nutrients and absorbed substances from the digestive tract to the liver for processing
Rationale: The hepatic portal vein collects blood rich in digested nutrients, toxins, and drugs from the GI tract,
spleen, and pancreas and delivers it to the liver for metabolism, detoxification, and storage. Oxygen-rich blood
comes via hepatic artery. The portal system does not directly regulate BP.
12. A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with ataxia, nystagmus, and confusion. Thiamine administration
is initiated. This condition results from damage to which brain structures?
A. Basal ganglia and substantia nigra
B. Mammillary bodies and periaqueductal gray
C. Mammillary bodies and thalamus
D. Hippocampus and amygdala
Answer C: Mammillary bodies and thalamus
Rationale: Wernicke’s encephalopathy (caused by thiamine deficiency) typically involves neuronal loss and
petechial hemorrhages in the mammillary bodies, medial thalamus, periaqueductal gray, and cerebellar vermis.
Basal ganglia damage occurs in Wilson’s; hippocampus in Alzheimer’s.
13. Which of the following correctly pairs the type of leukocyte with its primary function?
A. Eosinophil - phagocytosis of bacteria
B. Basophil - release of histamine in allergic reactions
C. Neutrophil - defense against parasitic worms
D. Monocyte - antibody production
Answer B: Basophil - release of histamine in allergic reactions
Rationale: Basophils (and mast cells) release histamine and heparin during allergic and inflammatory responses.
Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria; eosinophils target parasites; monocytes become macrophages; antibody
production is by plasma cells (derived from B lymphocytes).
Questions with Answers and Rationales
Introduction
This comprehensive review includes 320 multiple-choice questions to help you prepare for the ATI TEAS 7 Nursing
Science Exam 2026/2027, focusing on Anatomy, Physiology, and Life Sciences. The questions cover all major body
systems, cellular biology, genetics, metabolism, and key physiological processes. . Each question is followed by the
correct answer in italic and a detailed rationale. Use this resource to assess your knowledge and identify areas for
further study.
1. A patient has a mutation that prevents the reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal
muscle cells. Which of the following would be most directly impaired?
A. Action potential propagation along the sarcolemma
B. Cross-bridge detachment and muscle relaxation
C. Release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
D. Binding of troponin to tropomyosin
Answer B: Cross-bridge detachment and muscle relaxation
Rationale: Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) actively pumps calcium back into its stores during relaxation using Ca²⁺-
ATPase. If reuptake is impaired, intracellular calcium remains high, preventing troponin from releasing
tropomyosin, so cross-bridges stay attached, causing prolonged contraction or spasm. Action potentials, ACh
release, and troponin binding are upstream or unrelated to SR reuptake.
2. Which of the following best describes the primary role of the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in
blood pressure regulation?
A. Converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
B. Converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Directly constricting afferent arterioles
D. Stimulating aldosterone secretion from the adrenal medulla
Answer B: Converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Rationale: ACE is located primarily on endothelial cells of pulmonary capillaries. It cleaves two amino acids from
angiotensin I to produce angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates aldosterone release from the
adrenal cortex (not medulla). Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
3. A researcher finds that a novel virus infects only cells expressing CD4 receptor and either CCR5 or CXCR4 co-
receptors. This virus most likely targets:
A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. Helper T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
Answer B: Helper T lymphocytes
Rationale: Helper T cells (CD4+ T cells) express CD4 receptors and chemokine co-receptors CCR5 or CXCR4, which
are the entry points for HIV. Cytotoxic T cells express CD8; B cells and NK cells lack CD4. The description matches
HIV tropism.
,4. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from production
to reabsorption?
A. Choroid plexus → lateral ventricles → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space → arachnoid
granulations
B. Lateral ventricles → choroid plexus → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → arachnoid granulations →
subarachnoid space
C. Subarachnoid space → choroid plexus → fourth ventricle → third ventricle → lateral ventricles → arachnoid
granulations
D. Arachnoid granulations → subarachnoid space → fourth ventricle → third ventricle → lateral ventricles →
choroid plexus
Answer A: Choroid plexus → lateral ventricles → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space →
arachnoid granulations
Rationale: CSF is produced by the choroid plexus within the lateral ventricles, flows through the interventricular
foramina to the third ventricle, then through the cerebral aqueduct to the fourth ventricle, exits to the
subarachnoid space via foramina of Luschka and Magendie, and is reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations into
venous blood.
5. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the pars distalis of the anterior pituitary and directly acts on
gonads to stimulate gametogenesis?
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Inhibin
Answer B: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Rationale: FSH directly acts on the ovaries (stimulates follicular development and estrogen production) and testes
(stimulates spermatogenesis via Sertoli cells). LH acts on theca cells and Leydig cells; GnRH is hypothalamic;
inhibin is gonadal feedback hormone.
6. A patient has damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve. Which of the
following clinical findings is most likely?
A. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
B. Ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis with hoarseness
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Impaired gag reflex on the right side
Answer B: Ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis with hoarseness
Rationale: The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid.
Unilateral damage causes ipsilateral vocal cord paralysis, resulting in hoarseness. Taste is via facial nerve (chorda
tympani); bradycardia/hypotension from vagal efferents; gag reflex involves glossopharyngeal and vagus but not
specifically recurrent laryngeal.
,7. In the corneal reflex, touching the cornea causes blinking. Which cranial nerves are the afferent and efferent
limbs, respectively?
A. CN V1 (ophthalmic) and CN VII (facial)
B. CN V2 (maxillary) and CN III (oculomotor)
C. CN V1 and CN III
D. CN II and CN VII
Answer A: CN V1 (ophthalmic) and CN VII (facial)
Rationale: Afferent limb is the ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve (CN V1) sensing corneal touch. Efferent
limb is the facial nerve (CN VII) causing orbicularis oculi contraction (blink). CN III is for pupil and eye movement,
not blinking.
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Frank-Starling mechanism is correct?
A. It describes the relationship between heart rate and stroke volume.
B. Increased venous return leads to increased end-diastolic volume and increased force of contraction.
C. It is mediated primarily by sympathetic nervous system activation.
D. It explains why afterload reduction decreases stroke volume.
Answer B: Increased venous return leads to increased end-diastolic volume and increased force of contraction
Rationale: Frank-Starling states that the heart pumps whatever volume it receives; greater preload (EDV)
stretches cardiac myocytes, increasing overlap of actin and myosin and thus contractile force. It is intrinsic, not
neural. Afterload reduction typically increases stroke volume.
9. A 65-year-old man has difficulty rising from a chair and climbing stairs. His serum creatine kinase is normal. A
muscle biopsy shows rimmed vacuoles and eosinophilic inclusions. Which condition is most likely?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Inclusion body myositis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Answer B: Inclusion body myositis
Rationale: Inclusion body myositis (IBM) presents with proximal and distal weakness, normal or mildly elevated
CK, and biopsy shows rimmed vacuoles and inclusions. Duchenne presents in childhood with very high CK;
myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton show neuromuscular junction defects without these histologic findings.
10. In the kidney, which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water in the absence of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH)?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
, B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Answer D: Collecting duct
Rationale: The collecting duct is permeable to water only when ADH is present, inserting aquaporin-2 channels.
The proximal tubule and descending limb are always permeable; the thick ascending limb is always impermeable
(diluting segment).
11. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the hepatic portal system?
A. To deliver oxygen-rich blood directly to hepatocytes
B. To carry nutrients and absorbed substances from the digestive tract to the liver for processing
C. To drain deoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava
D. To regulate systemic blood pressure via the release of angiotensinogen
Answer B: To carry nutrients and absorbed substances from the digestive tract to the liver for processing
Rationale: The hepatic portal vein collects blood rich in digested nutrients, toxins, and drugs from the GI tract,
spleen, and pancreas and delivers it to the liver for metabolism, detoxification, and storage. Oxygen-rich blood
comes via hepatic artery. The portal system does not directly regulate BP.
12. A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with ataxia, nystagmus, and confusion. Thiamine administration
is initiated. This condition results from damage to which brain structures?
A. Basal ganglia and substantia nigra
B. Mammillary bodies and periaqueductal gray
C. Mammillary bodies and thalamus
D. Hippocampus and amygdala
Answer C: Mammillary bodies and thalamus
Rationale: Wernicke’s encephalopathy (caused by thiamine deficiency) typically involves neuronal loss and
petechial hemorrhages in the mammillary bodies, medial thalamus, periaqueductal gray, and cerebellar vermis.
Basal ganglia damage occurs in Wilson’s; hippocampus in Alzheimer’s.
13. Which of the following correctly pairs the type of leukocyte with its primary function?
A. Eosinophil - phagocytosis of bacteria
B. Basophil - release of histamine in allergic reactions
C. Neutrophil - defense against parasitic worms
D. Monocyte - antibody production
Answer B: Basophil - release of histamine in allergic reactions
Rationale: Basophils (and mast cells) release histamine and heparin during allergic and inflammatory responses.
Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria; eosinophils target parasites; monocytes become macrophages; antibody
production is by plasma cells (derived from B lymphocytes).
