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NUR 209/ NUR 209 Exam 4: (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) Medical Surgical Nursing II: Med-Surg Review| Comprehensive Questions| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Fortis

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive exam preparation resource for NUR 209 Exam 4 Medical Surgical Nursing II at Fortis College covers all content for the 2026/2027 academic year fourth examination. It features verified questions and answers with detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, and clinical scenario formats aligned with nursing program standards. NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS (EXAM 4 FOCUS) TRAUMATIC BRAIN INJURY (TBI) Definition – Alteration in brain function or pathology caused by external force. Leading cause of death and disability in individuals under 45 years. Types of TBI Closed (Blunt) TBI – Head strikes a hard surface or rapid acceleration-deceleration without skull penetration (falls, MVA, assault, sports injuries). Injury occurs at impact site (coup) and opposite side (contrecoup). Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) from shearing forces → widespread axonal damage → coma and poor outcome. Penetrating (Open) TBI – Foreign object penetrates skull and enters brain tissue (gunshot wounds, stab wounds). High risk of infection (meningitis, brain abscess), hemorrhage, seizures. Primary Brain Injury – Occurs at time of impact (initial damage). Can be focal (contusion, laceration, hematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Results from direct cell death, vascular injury, axonal shearing. Secondary Brain Injury – Occurs minutes to days after primary injury from inflammatory, metabolic, and neurochemical cascades triggering further cell death. Pathophysiology: cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure (ICP), ischemia, hypoxia, hypotension, hyperemia, metabolic dysfunction, excitotoxicity (excess glutamate), oxidative stress, mitochondrial dysfunction, apoptosis. Intracranial Pressure (ICP) – Normal ICP 5-15 mmHg (adults). Increased ICP is common complication of TBI. ICP monitoring: indications (GCS ≤8 with abnormal CT, severe TBI with normal CT but age 40, motor posturing, SBP 90, or 2 of these). Types: intraventricular catheter (EVD – gold standard, allows CSF drainage), intraparenchymal fiberoptic monitor, subdural/subarachnoid bolt. Monro-Kellie doctrine: volume of brain tissue (80%), blood (10%), and CSF (10%) is constant. Increase in any component → increase in ICP. Compensatory mechanisms initially accommodate increased volume (CSF displacement into spinal canal, increased CSF absorption, decreased CSF production). Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) – Pressure gradient that drives blood flow to brain. CPP = MAP – ICP. Normal CPP 60-100 mmHg (target 60 mmHg). CPP 50 mmHg causes cerebral ischemia, CPP 100 mmHg increases ICP (hyperemia). MAP = SBP + 2(DBP) ÷ 3. Increased ICP Manifestations – Early: headache (worse in morning, with bending, coughing, straining, Valsalva), vomiting (projectile, without nausea), drowsiness, decreased LOC (lethargy, confusion), restlessness, irritability. Late: Cushing's triad (widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations – ominous sign of impending herniation), abnormal posturing, fixed and dilated pupils, papilledema, seizures, coma, death. Posturing Types – Decorticate (flexor) posturing: arms adducted, flexed elbows/wrists, fingers fisted, legs extended, internally rotated – indicates lesion above brainstem (corticospinal tract injury). More favorable outcome. Decerebrate (extensor) posturing: arms adducted, rigid extension elbows/wrists, legs extended with plantar flexion – indicates lesion at brainstem (midbrain, pons). Poor prognosis. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) – Standardized neurological assessment: eye opening (1-4), verbal response (1-5), motor response (1-6). Severe TBI: GCS ≤8, Moderate TBI: GCS 9-12, Mild TBI (concussion): GCS 13-15. Concussion Management – Mild TBI with normal neuroimaging, brief LOC (seconds to minutes) or no LOC. Post-concussive syndrome: headache, dizziness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, difficulty concentrating, memory problems, mood changes, vision changes, light/noise sensitivity, balance problems. Most common cause

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1|Page




NUR209 Exam 4 Medical Surgical Nursing 2

2026/2027 Comprehensive Questions with

Verified Answers and Rationales Grade A


1. What is a collection of purulent fluid within the pleural space?

Correct Answer: Empyema

Rationale:

1. Empyema is pus in the pleural space, usually from bacterial pneumonia or

lung abscess.

2. Symptoms include fever, chills, chest pain, and nonproductive cough.

3. Chest tube drainage may be turbid or purulent.

4. Treatment requires antibiotics and chest tube drainage.



2. The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube who is

receiving mechanical ventilation. When assessing the client, the nurse

knows to maintain what cuff pressure to maintain appropriate pressure

on the tracheal wall?

Correct Answer: 20-25 mm Hg

,2|Page


Rationale:

1. Endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained at 20-25 mm Hg.

2. This pressure seals the airway for positive pressure ventilation without

causing tracheal injury.

3. High pressure causes tracheal ischemia, necrosis, and stenosis.

4. Low pressure allows air leak and aspiration of secretions.



3. Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent

INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Correct Answer: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

Rationale:

1. Isoniazid (INH) causes peripheral neuropathy by interfering with vitamin B6

metabolism.

2. Vitamin B6 supplementation prevents and treats INH-induced neuropathy.

3. Patients at highest risk include malnourished individuals, alcoholics, and

pregnant women.



4. What technique is used for tracheostomy care (clean or sterile)?

Correct Answer: Sterile

, 3|Page


Rationale:

1. Tracheostomy care requires sterile technique to prevent infection.

2. The trachea is a sterile environment; introducing pathogens causes

pneumonia.

3. Use sterile gloves, sterile supplies, and sterile water for cleaning the inner

cannula.



5. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing treatment for active

tuberculosis (TB) with isoniazid and rifampin. Which laboratory test is

most important for the nurse to monitor to detect potential adverse

effects of these medications?

Correct Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs)

Rationale:

1. Both isoniazid and rifampin are hepatotoxic medications.

2. Monitor AST, ALT, and bilirubin for signs of liver injury.

3. Patients should be taught signs of hepatitis (dark urine, jaundice, fatigue,

nausea).



6. A client with unresolved hemothorax is febrile, with chills and

sweating. The client has a nonproductive cough and chest pain. The

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