ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored RN 2026 Updated Study Pack with
Screenshots, Questions, Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a diagnosis of
incompetent cervix who had a cervical cerclage placed at 14 weeks. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "You may resume sexual intercourse in 1 week."
B) "Report any vaginal bleeding or cramping immediately."
C) "You should remain on bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy."
D) "The cerclage will be removed at 42 weeks if labor has not started."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After cerclage placement, the client should report any signs of labor
(cramping, bleeding, rupture of membranes) as the cerclage may need to be
removed to prevent uterine rupture. Sexual intercourse and strenuous activity are
typically restricted. The cerclage is usually removed at 36–37 weeks .
, . 7. A nurse is assessing a client at 30 weeks gestation who has a diagnosis of
gestational hypertension. The client's blood pressure is 150/96 mm Hg, and she
reports a headache. Which additional finding would indicate progression to severe
preeclampsia?
A) Urine protein 1+
B) Epigastric pain
C) Mild ankle edema
D) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epigastric pain (right upper quadrant) indicates liver capsule distension
and is a sign of severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome. Proteinuria of 1+ is mild;
severe preeclampsia is ≥3+ or ≥5 g/24 hr. Mild edema and modest weight gain are
common in normal pregnancy
,3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 16 weeks pregnant.
The client's rubella titer is 1:8 (low). Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer rubella vaccine now
B) Repeat rubella titer at 28 weeks
C) Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
D) No action needed because the titer is protective
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rubella titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. Rubella vaccine is a live
virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. The vaccine should be
administered in the immediate postpartum period before discharge, and the client
should avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks.
, 4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 weeks pregnant. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Frequent urination
C) Nosebleeds (epistaxis)
D) Blurred vision with spots
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision with spots (scotomata) can indicate severe preeclampsia
and requires immediate evaluation. Heartburn, frequent urination, and nosebleeds
are common discomforts of pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased
blood volume.
Screenshots, Questions, Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a diagnosis of
incompetent cervix who had a cervical cerclage placed at 14 weeks. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "You may resume sexual intercourse in 1 week."
B) "Report any vaginal bleeding or cramping immediately."
C) "You should remain on bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy."
D) "The cerclage will be removed at 42 weeks if labor has not started."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After cerclage placement, the client should report any signs of labor
(cramping, bleeding, rupture of membranes) as the cerclage may need to be
removed to prevent uterine rupture. Sexual intercourse and strenuous activity are
typically restricted. The cerclage is usually removed at 36–37 weeks .
, . 7. A nurse is assessing a client at 30 weeks gestation who has a diagnosis of
gestational hypertension. The client's blood pressure is 150/96 mm Hg, and she
reports a headache. Which additional finding would indicate progression to severe
preeclampsia?
A) Urine protein 1+
B) Epigastric pain
C) Mild ankle edema
D) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epigastric pain (right upper quadrant) indicates liver capsule distension
and is a sign of severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome. Proteinuria of 1+ is mild;
severe preeclampsia is ≥3+ or ≥5 g/24 hr. Mild edema and modest weight gain are
common in normal pregnancy
,3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 16 weeks pregnant.
The client's rubella titer is 1:8 (low). Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer rubella vaccine now
B) Repeat rubella titer at 28 weeks
C) Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
D) No action needed because the titer is protective
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rubella titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. Rubella vaccine is a live
virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. The vaccine should be
administered in the immediate postpartum period before discharge, and the client
should avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks.
, 4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 weeks pregnant. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Frequent urination
C) Nosebleeds (epistaxis)
D) Blurred vision with spots
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision with spots (scotomata) can indicate severe preeclampsia
and requires immediate evaluation. Heartburn, frequent urination, and nosebleeds
are common discomforts of pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased
blood volume.
