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Exam 4: NUR230/ NUR 230 (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) Concepts of Nursing Childbearing and Child Caring Family: OB/Mother-Baby Review| Test Bank| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Galen

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This official test bank for NUR 230 Exam 4 at Galen College of Nursing covers Concepts of Nursing Childbearing and Child Caring Family (OB/Mother-Baby) for the 2026/2027 academic year fourth examination. It contains verified questions and answers with detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, and clinical scenario formats aligned with nursing program standards. NEWBORN NURSING (EXAM 4 FOCUS) APGAR SCORING The Apgar score is a standardized assessment tool used to evaluate the newborn's transition to extrauterine life. Performed at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. If the 5-minute score is less than 7, continue every 5 minutes for up to 20 minutes. Each of five categories is scored 0, 1, or 2. Total score range 0-10. Sign 0 Points 1 Point 2 Points Appearance (Skin Color) Blue or pale all over (central cyanosis) Body pink, extremities blue (acrocyanosis – normal in first 24-48 hours) Completely pink (all over) Pulse (Heart Rate) Absent 100 bpm (slow) 100 bpm (normal) Grimace (Reflex Irritability) No response to stimulation Grimace or weak cry when stimulated Vigorous cry, cough, sneeze, withdrawal Activity (Muscle Tone) Limp, flaccid Some flexion of extremities Active motion, well flexed Respiration (Breathing Effort) Absent Weak cry, hypoventilation, irregular Strong cry, normal respirations (30-60 bpm) Interpretation of Apgar Scores – 7-10: good to excellent condition (reassuring, no intervention needed beyond routine care for scores 8-10; for score 7 at 1 minute, may need stimulation, blow-by oxygen, suction, reassess at 5 minutes). 4-6: moderately depressed (requires some resuscitative measures – stimulation, oxygen, positive pressure ventilation (PPV) with bag and mask (BVM) if bradycardia (100 bpm) or central cyanosis not improving with blow-by oxygen, reassess frequently). 0-3: severely depressed (requires immediate full resuscitation – PPV with bag and mask (BVM) 40-60 breaths per minute, chest compressions if heart rate 60 bpm despite adequate ventilation, intubation, medications (epinephrine) if no response). Apgar score is NOT used to determine need for resuscitation – need for resuscitation is based on assessment of respiration, heart rate, tone, not the Apgar score. However, low Apgar score predicts neonatal morbidity and mortality risk. NEWBORN ASSESSMENT Gestational Age Assessment (Ballard Score) – Performed within 24-48 hours of birth (up to 96 hours is acceptable but less accurate after first few days). Assesses neuromuscular maturity (6 items: posture, square window (wrist angle/degree of flexion), arm recoil, popliteal angle (hip and knee extension), scarf sign (elbow across chest), heel to ear) and physical maturity (6 items: skin texture (smooth, sticky, peeling; lanugo, plantar creases, breast tissue, ear form and cartilage, genitalia (male: testes descent, scrotal rugae; female: labia minora/majora development)). Total score correlates with gestational age. Categories: preterm 37 weeks, early term 37 0/7 - 38 6/7 weeks, full term 39-40 6/7 weeks, late term 41-41 6/7 weeks, postterm ≥42 weeks. Newborn Classification by Weight – Low birth weight (LBW): 2,500 g (5 lb 8 oz). Very low birth weight (VLBW): 1,500 g (3 lb 5 oz). Extremely low birth weight (ELBW): 1,000 g (2 lb 3 oz). Appropriate for gestational age (AGA): 10th-90th percentile. Small for gestational age (SGA): 10th percentile (may be constitutionally small or growth restricted (intrauterine growth restriction – IUGR)). Large for gestational age (LGA

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NUR 230 Exam 4 Concepts of Nursing

Childbearing and Child Caring Family

2026/2027 Test Bank with Verified Answers

and Detailed Rationales Grade A – Galen


1. What are the most common causes of spinal cord injuries?

Correct Answer: Motor Vehicle Accidents, Falls, Violence, Sports Injuries

Rationale:

1. Motor vehicle accidents are the leading cause of spinal cord injuries.

2. Falls are the most common cause in older adults.

3. Violence (gunshot wounds) and sports injuries are also significant causes.



2. How long does it take to see the full extent of a spinal cord injury?

Correct Answer: Up to 72 hours

Rationale:

1. Spinal cord edema and inflammation peak within 72 hours.

2. The full extent of neurologic deficit may not be apparent immediately.

3. Repeated assessments are needed over the first 72 hours.

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3. What are the risk factors for spinal cord injuries?

Correct Answer: Ages 16-18, Male Gender, High-Risk Physical Activity,

Driving Under the Influence of Alcohol

Rationale:

1. Young males (16-30 years) have the highest incidence of SCI.

2. High-risk activities include football, diving, and motocross.

3. Alcohol use is a contributing factor in many SCIs.



4. What are the clinical manifestations of a spinal cord injury?

Correct Answer: Inability to Breathe, Paraplegia, Loss of

Bowel/Bladder/Sexual Function, Chronic Pain, Hypotension, Impaired

Temperature Control; Depends on Level of Injury

Rationale:

1. Cervical injuries (C3-C5) affect the phrenic nerve and breathing.

2. Paraplegia (lower extremity paralysis) occurs with thoracic/lumbar

injuries.

3. Autonomic dysfunction causes hypotension and impaired temperature

control.

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5. What does a lumbar/sacral injury affect?

Correct Answer: Bowel Function

Rationale:

1. The sacral spinal cord (S2-S4) controls bowel and bladder function.

2. Lumbar and sacral injuries cause loss of bowel and bladder control.



6. What does the inability to sweat below the level of injury indicate?

Correct Answer: Impaired Temperature Control

Rationale:

1. Autonomic dysfunction after SCI impairs sweating.

2. The patient cannot cool themselves below the level of injury.

3. This leads to risk of hyperthermia.



7. Why are special beds used for spinal cord injury patients?

Correct Answer: Help Relieve Spinal Pressure; Decreases the Likelihood

of Pressure Ulcers and Cardiopulmonary Complications

Rationale:

1. Special beds (Stryker frame, RotoRest) allow turning without moving the

spine.

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2. Frequent position changes prevent pressure ulcers.

3. They also help mobilize pulmonary secretions.



8. What are body jackets or Jewett braces used for?

Correct Answer: Thoracic or Lumbar Injuries

Rationale:

1. These braces immobilize the thoracic and lumbar spine.

2. They allow for early mobilization and ambulation.

3. They are used for stable fractures.



9. What is the functional outcome of a C1-C3/4 spinal injury?

Correct Answer: Ventilator Dependent

Rationale:

1. The phrenic nerve originates from C3-C5.

2. Injuries above C3 cause complete diaphragm paralysis.

3. These patients require permanent mechanical ventilation.



10. What is the functional outcome of a C5 spinal injury?

Correct Answer: May be Off Ventilator; Gross Arm Movement

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