NU171 | NU171 Maternal Child Nursing Midterm
v1 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question | Galen
1. A nurse is calculating a client’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s
rule. The client’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on November 10th. Which date is
the correct EDD?
A. September 10th
B. August 3rd
C. February 17th
D. August 17th
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s rule, the nurse should
subtract three months and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual
period. For an LMP of November 10th, subtracting three months results in August,
and adding seven days to the 10th results in the 17th. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle and is a common clinical tool for pregnancy dating.
2. Which of the following is considered a ‘positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
B. Amenorrhea
,C. Positive pregnancy test
D. Chadwick’s sign
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be
attributed to the presence of a fetus. These include hearing fetal heart tones,
visualizing the fetus via ultrasound, or palpating fetal movement by a trained
clinician. Signs like amenorrhea are subjective (presumptive), and signs like a
positive pregnancy test or Chadwick’s sign are objective but could be caused by
other conditions (probable).
3. A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client at 20 weeks gestation.
Where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
A. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
B. At the level of the umbilicus
C. At the level of the xiphoid process
D. Just above the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus of the uterus is typically
located at the level of the umbilicus. This landmark is significant because it
,represents a midpoint in pregnancy and correlates with standard fundal height
measurements. If the fundus is significantly higher or lower than expected for the
gestational age, further diagnostic testing such as an ultrasound may be required.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client in labor and notices late decelerations on the fetal
heart rate monitor. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Increase the Oxytocin infusion rate
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Document the finding as a normal variation
D. Reposition the client to the lateral position
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental
insufficiency, which reduces the amount of oxygen reaching the fetus. The priority
nursing intervention is to improve placental perfusion by turning the client to their
side, preferably the left side. Other interventions include administering oxygen via
mask and notifying the provider to evaluate the fetal status.
5. During the third stage of labor, which event is expected to occur?
A. Full cervical dilation
B. Descent of the fetus into the pelvis
, C. Birth of the infant
D. Expulsion of the placenta
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The third stage of labor begins immediately after the birth of
the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta. This stage usually lasts between
5 to 30 minutes and involves the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.
Careful monitoring is required during this stage to ensure no placental fragments
remain, which could cause postpartum hemorrhage.
6. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client two hours after delivery. The fundus is
boggy and displaced to the right. What is the most likely cause?
A. Retained placental fragments
B. Uterine atony
C. Endometritis
D. Bladder distention
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A full bladder can displace the uterus upward and to the right,
preventing the uterus from contracting efficiently. This loss of tone, or ‘boggy’
fundus, increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should encourage
v1 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question | Galen
1. A nurse is calculating a client’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s
rule. The client’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on November 10th. Which date is
the correct EDD?
A. September 10th
B. August 3rd
C. February 17th
D. August 17th
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s rule, the nurse should
subtract three months and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual
period. For an LMP of November 10th, subtracting three months results in August,
and adding seven days to the 10th results in the 17th. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle and is a common clinical tool for pregnancy dating.
2. Which of the following is considered a ‘positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
B. Amenorrhea
,C. Positive pregnancy test
D. Chadwick’s sign
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be
attributed to the presence of a fetus. These include hearing fetal heart tones,
visualizing the fetus via ultrasound, or palpating fetal movement by a trained
clinician. Signs like amenorrhea are subjective (presumptive), and signs like a
positive pregnancy test or Chadwick’s sign are objective but could be caused by
other conditions (probable).
3. A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client at 20 weeks gestation.
Where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
A. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
B. At the level of the umbilicus
C. At the level of the xiphoid process
D. Just above the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus of the uterus is typically
located at the level of the umbilicus. This landmark is significant because it
,represents a midpoint in pregnancy and correlates with standard fundal height
measurements. If the fundus is significantly higher or lower than expected for the
gestational age, further diagnostic testing such as an ultrasound may be required.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client in labor and notices late decelerations on the fetal
heart rate monitor. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Increase the Oxytocin infusion rate
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Document the finding as a normal variation
D. Reposition the client to the lateral position
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental
insufficiency, which reduces the amount of oxygen reaching the fetus. The priority
nursing intervention is to improve placental perfusion by turning the client to their
side, preferably the left side. Other interventions include administering oxygen via
mask and notifying the provider to evaluate the fetal status.
5. During the third stage of labor, which event is expected to occur?
A. Full cervical dilation
B. Descent of the fetus into the pelvis
, C. Birth of the infant
D. Expulsion of the placenta
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The third stage of labor begins immediately after the birth of
the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta. This stage usually lasts between
5 to 30 minutes and involves the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.
Careful monitoring is required during this stage to ensure no placental fragments
remain, which could cause postpartum hemorrhage.
6. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client two hours after delivery. The fundus is
boggy and displaced to the right. What is the most likely cause?
A. Retained placental fragments
B. Uterine atony
C. Endometritis
D. Bladder distention
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A full bladder can displace the uterus upward and to the right,
preventing the uterus from contracting efficiently. This loss of tone, or ‘boggy’
fundus, increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should encourage
