NBRC TMC TEST BANK FINAL EXAM PREPARATION 2026-
2027 NEWEST VERSION 1 WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS (RATIONALES) LATEST
UPDATE!! ACTUAL TEST BANK FINAL EXAM ALREADY GRADED
A+ The University of Texas Health Science Center at San
Antonio \RESC 5030
The results of a V/Q scan shows poor perfusion with adequate ventilation. A
chest radiograph shows a wedge-shaped infiltrate over the right lung field.
The patient most likely has
A. fluid overload
B. ARDS
C. a pulmonary embolism
D. pneumonia
C.
A VQ scan that shows poor perfusion but adequate ventilation is most
closely associated with a pulmonary embolism. Supportive data is found in
the radiological report of wedge-shaped infiltrates.
,The respiratory therapist notes in the medical record of a 65-year-old male
that the patient is ordered to receive bronchodilator therapy with
Albuterol. The therapist also notes the patient is receiving beta-blocker
medication. The therapist should recommend
A. Administer Dexamethasone (Decadron) in place of Albuterol
B. Add Xopenex to the bronchodilator regimen
C. Replace Albuterol with Beclamethasone (Beclovent)
D. Switch from Albuterol to ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
D.
Because albuterol is a beta-agonist medication, patients who are
taking beta-blockers should utilize other bronchodilation
medication.
,A hospital has an extremely low incidence of ventilator-associated
pneumonia. To which of the following reasons may this be attributed?
A. periodic discontinuation of sedation
B. use of respiratory precautions with the population
C. diversion of infectious patients to other facilities
D. broad use of prophylactic antibiotics
A.
The incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia, or VAP, is lowered by
using a closed system suction catheter, periodically discontinuing
sedation, keeping the patient and semi-Fowler's position, and proper
handwashing among caregivers. All are correct.
A pressure-volume loop ventilator graphic shows no rise in pressure for the
first 200 mL of delivered volume. The therapist should
A. increase inspiratory flow rate
B. increase PEEP
C. decrease tidal volume
D. decrease inspiratory flow rate
B.
In this question the description of the pressure volume loop would
indicate a flat bottom as manifested by no rise in pressure with the first
200 mL of delivered volume. We call this a "flat football". The solution is to
increase PEEP to a level that the pressure begins to rise immediately as
volume is introduced.
, Which of the following would be the most effective, appropriate
method for resolving atelectasis in a spontaneously breathing, post
operative patient who is under the influence of sedation and will not
respond to verbal stimuli?
A. IPPB
B. sustained maximal inhalation (incentive spirometer)
C. deep breathing coaching
D. intubation and mechanical ventilation
A.
A postoperative patient under sedation, and possibly in pain, may be
tempted to breathe less, causing respiratory acidosis and atelectasis. To
correct this problem, IPPB therapy is most appropriate. Incentive
spirometry would also help but the patient is unable to respond to verbal
stimuli. This alone is an indication for IPPB therapy.
After performing minimum occluding volume technique with a 65-kg
(143-lb) patient who is orally intubated with a 7.0-mm ET tube, the
respiratory therapist should NEXT
A. check ET tube cuff pressure
B. perform tracheal palpation
C. order a chest radiograph
D. document ET tube markings at the lips
A.
The ET tube cuff pressure may be adjusted correctly by several
techniques including minimum leak technique (also called minimum
occluding volume, minimal seal technique, and the use of a pressure
manometer called a cuffalator. If minimum seal or minimal leak technique is
used, the respiratory therapist is still required to monitor the pressure
after the technique is performed. Although this is often not done in real
life, it is technically part of the procedure.
2027 NEWEST VERSION 1 WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS (RATIONALES) LATEST
UPDATE!! ACTUAL TEST BANK FINAL EXAM ALREADY GRADED
A+ The University of Texas Health Science Center at San
Antonio \RESC 5030
The results of a V/Q scan shows poor perfusion with adequate ventilation. A
chest radiograph shows a wedge-shaped infiltrate over the right lung field.
The patient most likely has
A. fluid overload
B. ARDS
C. a pulmonary embolism
D. pneumonia
C.
A VQ scan that shows poor perfusion but adequate ventilation is most
closely associated with a pulmonary embolism. Supportive data is found in
the radiological report of wedge-shaped infiltrates.
,The respiratory therapist notes in the medical record of a 65-year-old male
that the patient is ordered to receive bronchodilator therapy with
Albuterol. The therapist also notes the patient is receiving beta-blocker
medication. The therapist should recommend
A. Administer Dexamethasone (Decadron) in place of Albuterol
B. Add Xopenex to the bronchodilator regimen
C. Replace Albuterol with Beclamethasone (Beclovent)
D. Switch from Albuterol to ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
D.
Because albuterol is a beta-agonist medication, patients who are
taking beta-blockers should utilize other bronchodilation
medication.
,A hospital has an extremely low incidence of ventilator-associated
pneumonia. To which of the following reasons may this be attributed?
A. periodic discontinuation of sedation
B. use of respiratory precautions with the population
C. diversion of infectious patients to other facilities
D. broad use of prophylactic antibiotics
A.
The incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia, or VAP, is lowered by
using a closed system suction catheter, periodically discontinuing
sedation, keeping the patient and semi-Fowler's position, and proper
handwashing among caregivers. All are correct.
A pressure-volume loop ventilator graphic shows no rise in pressure for the
first 200 mL of delivered volume. The therapist should
A. increase inspiratory flow rate
B. increase PEEP
C. decrease tidal volume
D. decrease inspiratory flow rate
B.
In this question the description of the pressure volume loop would
indicate a flat bottom as manifested by no rise in pressure with the first
200 mL of delivered volume. We call this a "flat football". The solution is to
increase PEEP to a level that the pressure begins to rise immediately as
volume is introduced.
, Which of the following would be the most effective, appropriate
method for resolving atelectasis in a spontaneously breathing, post
operative patient who is under the influence of sedation and will not
respond to verbal stimuli?
A. IPPB
B. sustained maximal inhalation (incentive spirometer)
C. deep breathing coaching
D. intubation and mechanical ventilation
A.
A postoperative patient under sedation, and possibly in pain, may be
tempted to breathe less, causing respiratory acidosis and atelectasis. To
correct this problem, IPPB therapy is most appropriate. Incentive
spirometry would also help but the patient is unable to respond to verbal
stimuli. This alone is an indication for IPPB therapy.
After performing minimum occluding volume technique with a 65-kg
(143-lb) patient who is orally intubated with a 7.0-mm ET tube, the
respiratory therapist should NEXT
A. check ET tube cuff pressure
B. perform tracheal palpation
C. order a chest radiograph
D. document ET tube markings at the lips
A.
The ET tube cuff pressure may be adjusted correctly by several
techniques including minimum leak technique (also called minimum
occluding volume, minimal seal technique, and the use of a pressure
manometer called a cuffalator. If minimum seal or minimal leak technique is
used, the respiratory therapist is still required to monitor the pressure
after the technique is performed. Although this is often not done in real
life, it is technically part of the procedure.
