Law Practice Questions | California Pharmacy
Jurisprudence & Top Brand/Generic Review | Verified
Answers & Rationales
1. A patient with a history of a severe penicillin allergy (anaphylaxis) requires
treatment for a skin infection. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate
choice?
A) Cephalexin
B) Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
C) Clindamycin
D) Cefdinir
In cases of true IgE-mediated anaphylaxis to PCN, cross-reactivity with cephalosporins is a
risk. A non-beta-lactam like Clindamycin or a macrolide is safer.
2. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause "discoloration of the
urine" to an orange-red color?
A) Nitrofurantoin
B) Phenazopyridine
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Sulfamethoxazole
Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is famous for this side effect; patients must be counseled that
it can also stain contact lenses.
3. What is the maximum daily dose of Acetaminophen for an otherwise healthy adult
according to most clinical guidelines?
A) 2,000 mg
B) 3,000 mg
C) 4,000 mg
D) 6,000 mg
While some manufacturers suggest 3,000 mg for safety, the clinical standard tested is 4,000
mg (4g) per 24 hours.
4. A patient is prescribed Amiodarone. Which of the following monitoring parameters
is required due to a potential Black Box Warning?
,A) Serum Creatinine
B) Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs) and Chest X-ray
C) Hearing tests
D) Bone density scan
Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity (interstitial pneumonitis); baseline and periodic
PFTs/CXR are mandatory.
5. Which of the following medications must be dispensed in its original, light-
resistant container?
A) Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets
B) Atorvastatin
C) Lisinopril
D) Metformin
Nitroglycerin SL tablets are highly unstable; they must be kept in their original glass vial to
prevent loss of potency from light and moisture.
6. A pharmacist in California receives a prescription for "Azithromycin 250mg, 2 tabs
po day 1, then 1 tab po days 2-5." What is the common name for this regimen?
A) Medrol Dosepak
B) Z-Pak
C) Tri-Pak
D) Macrobid
The Z-Pak is a 5-day course (total of 1.5g) frequently tested for its unique "front-loaded"
dosing.
7. Which of the following is a Contraindication for the use of Sildenafil (Viagra)?
A) Hypertension
B) Concurrent use of organic nitrates (e.g., Nitroglycerin)
C) Diabetes
D) High-fat meals
Mixing Sildenafil and Nitrates can lead to life-threatening hypotension.
8. What is the Black Box Warning associated with all fluoroquinolones (e.g.,
Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin)?
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Tendon rupture and tendonitis
C) Severe skin rash (SJS)
D) Nephrotoxicity
, Fluoroquinolones increase the risk of tendon rupture, especially in patients over 60 or
those on corticosteroids.
9. A patient is starting Warfarin therapy. Which of the following foods should they be
counseled to keep "consistent" in their diet?
A) Red meat
B) Dairy products
C) Green leafy vegetables (Spinach, Kale)
D) Citrus fruits
These foods are high in Vitamin K, which directly antagonizes Warfarin. Consistency is key
to maintaining a stable INR.
10. In California, a pharmacist can furnish Naloxone to a patient without a
prescription. Which of the following is a required counseling point?
A) Call emergency services immediately after administration
B) Only use if the patient is conscious
C) The dose can only be given once
D) Store the medication in the refrigerator
Because Naloxone is short-acting, the patient may lapse back into overdose; emergency
services must be called for professional medical help.
11. Which of the following is the "Brand Name" for the combination product
Valsartan/Sacubitril?
A) Diovan
B) Entresto
C) Farxiga
D) Jardiance
Entresto is a high-yield heart failure medication frequently seen on the CPJE.
12. What is the standard pediatric dose for Amoxicillin for acute otitis media (high-
dose)?
A) 20-30 mg/kg/day
B) 45 mg/kg/day
C) 80-90 mg/kg/day
D) 120 mg/kg/day
High-dose Amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg) is the first-line standard for pediatric ear infections.
13. Which of the following insulin types is "Rapid-Acting"?
A) Lantus (Glargine)
B) Humulin N (NPH)