NU664C | NU664C Family Psychiatric Mental
Health Exam 2 Version 2 | Questions with Correct
Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question
| Regis
1. A 28-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder
(MDD). According to the DSM-5-TR, what is the minimum duration these symptoms
must be present for a diagnosis?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The DSM-5-TR requires that symptoms of Major Depressive
Disorder be present for at least a two-week period. This timeframe helps distinguish
clinical depression from transient fluctuations in mood. During these two weeks, the
patient must experience either a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure.
2. When initiating Lithium carbonate for a patient with Bipolar I Disorder, which of the
following laboratory tests is most critical to monitor due to the drug’s narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
,B. Serum creatinine and TSH
C. Serum glucose levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, making renal
function monitoring via serum creatinine essential to prevent toxicity. It is also
known to cause hypothyroidism, which necessitates regular TSH monitoring
throughout treatment. Maintaining these labs ensures the patient remains within
the narrow therapeutic window while minimizing long-term organ damage.
3. A patient is being cross-tapered from a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
(SSRI) to a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI). How long should the ‘washout’
period be for most SSRIs to avoid serotonin syndrome?
A. 24 hours
B. 14 days
C. 7 days
D. 5 weeks
Correct Answer: B
,Expert Explanation: A 14-day washout period is standard for most SSRIs to allow
the drug to clear the system before starting an MAOI. This timeframe is crucial to
prevent the potentially fatal interaction known as serotonin syndrome. However, if
the patient was taking Fluoxetine, a longer washout of 5 weeks is required due to its
long half-life.
4. Which of the following is considered the ‘gold standard’ for the treatment of
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) when using pharmacotherapy?
A. Low-dose Buspirone
B. High-dose SSRIs
C. Tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline
D. Benzodiazepines as needed
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: High-dose SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological treatment
recommended for OCD management. Clinical evidence suggests that OCD symptoms
typically require higher dosages and a longer duration of treatment compared to
MDD. Clomipramine is also effective but is usually reserved for second-line due to
its side effect profile.
, 5. A PMHNP is treating a patient with PTSD who experiences frequent nightmares.
Which medication is specifically recommended to target trauma-related nightmares?
A. Alprazolam
B. Prazosin
C. Risperidone
D. Citalopram
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist that is frequently
used off-label to reduce nightmares and improve sleep quality in PTSD patients. It
works by inhibiting the overactive norepinephrine response associated with the
trauma response. Gradual titration is necessary to avoid orthostatic hypotension
during the initial dosing phase.
6. What is the hallmark symptom that distinguishes Bipolar II Disorder from Bipolar I
Disorder?
A. The occurrence of at least one hypomanic episode and no manic episodes
B. The occurrence of at least one manic episode
C. The presence of visual hallucinations
D. A history of chronic dysthymia for at least two years
Health Exam 2 Version 2 | Questions with Correct
Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question
| Regis
1. A 28-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder
(MDD). According to the DSM-5-TR, what is the minimum duration these symptoms
must be present for a diagnosis?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: The DSM-5-TR requires that symptoms of Major Depressive
Disorder be present for at least a two-week period. This timeframe helps distinguish
clinical depression from transient fluctuations in mood. During these two weeks, the
patient must experience either a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure.
2. When initiating Lithium carbonate for a patient with Bipolar I Disorder, which of the
following laboratory tests is most critical to monitor due to the drug’s narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
,B. Serum creatinine and TSH
C. Serum glucose levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, making renal
function monitoring via serum creatinine essential to prevent toxicity. It is also
known to cause hypothyroidism, which necessitates regular TSH monitoring
throughout treatment. Maintaining these labs ensures the patient remains within
the narrow therapeutic window while minimizing long-term organ damage.
3. A patient is being cross-tapered from a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
(SSRI) to a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI). How long should the ‘washout’
period be for most SSRIs to avoid serotonin syndrome?
A. 24 hours
B. 14 days
C. 7 days
D. 5 weeks
Correct Answer: B
,Expert Explanation: A 14-day washout period is standard for most SSRIs to allow
the drug to clear the system before starting an MAOI. This timeframe is crucial to
prevent the potentially fatal interaction known as serotonin syndrome. However, if
the patient was taking Fluoxetine, a longer washout of 5 weeks is required due to its
long half-life.
4. Which of the following is considered the ‘gold standard’ for the treatment of
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) when using pharmacotherapy?
A. Low-dose Buspirone
B. High-dose SSRIs
C. Tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline
D. Benzodiazepines as needed
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: High-dose SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological treatment
recommended for OCD management. Clinical evidence suggests that OCD symptoms
typically require higher dosages and a longer duration of treatment compared to
MDD. Clomipramine is also effective but is usually reserved for second-line due to
its side effect profile.
, 5. A PMHNP is treating a patient with PTSD who experiences frequent nightmares.
Which medication is specifically recommended to target trauma-related nightmares?
A. Alprazolam
B. Prazosin
C. Risperidone
D. Citalopram
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist that is frequently
used off-label to reduce nightmares and improve sleep quality in PTSD patients. It
works by inhibiting the overactive norepinephrine response associated with the
trauma response. Gradual titration is necessary to avoid orthostatic hypotension
during the initial dosing phase.
6. What is the hallmark symptom that distinguishes Bipolar II Disorder from Bipolar I
Disorder?
A. The occurrence of at least one hypomanic episode and no manic episodes
B. The occurrence of at least one manic episode
C. The presence of visual hallucinations
D. A history of chronic dysthymia for at least two years
