NU664C | NU664C Family Psychiatric Mental
Health Exam 4 Version 3 | Questions with Correct
Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question
| Regis
1. A 10-year-old child presents with symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and
inattention. Which medication is considered the first-line pharmacological treatment
for this patient?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Sertraline
C. Risperidone
D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication that is generally
the first-line treatment for pediatric ADHD. It works by increasing the levels of
dopamine and norepinephrine in the synapses. Clinicians should monitor the
patient’s height and weight frequently to watch for growth suppression.
2. In Bowenian family therapy, which concept refers to the process of a third person
being brought into a two-person conflict to reduce anxiety?
A. Differentiation of self
,B. Emotional cutoff
C. Multigenerational transmission
D. Triangulation
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Triangulation occurs when two people in a family system have
a conflict and involve a third party to stabilize the relationship. While it reduces
immediate tension, it prevents the original two people from resolving their issues
directly. Managing these triangles is a key goal for the Bowenian therapist.
3. An elderly patient taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder reports new onset of ataxia,
coarse tremors, and confusion. What is the most appropriate next step for the
PMHNP?
A. Order a serum Lithium level immediately
B. Increase the dose to treat worsening mania
C. Switch the patient to a different mood stabilizer
D. Prescribe a benzodiazepine for the tremors
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Ataxia, coarse tremors, and confusion are classic signs of
Lithium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. Elderly patients are at higher risk
,for toxicity due to reduced renal clearance. A serum level must be checked to
confirm toxicity and determine the severity of the situation.
4. Which side effect is the most common reason for male patients to discontinue
treatment with SSRIs like Paroxetine?
A. Weight loss
B. Hyperactivity
C. Sexual dysfunction
D. Alopecia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Sexual dysfunction, including delayed ejaculation and reduced
libido, is a very frequent side effect of SSRI therapy. Many patients find this side
effect distressing and may stop their medication without consulting their provider.
PMHNPs should proactively discuss this possibility and consider alternatives like
Bupropion if it occurs.
5. A patient is prescribed Donepezil (Aricept) for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s
disease. What is the mechanism of action for this medication?
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. GABA agonist
, C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
D. NMDA receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Donepezil works by inhibiting the enzyme
acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine in the brain. This increases
the availability of acetylcholine, which is involved in memory and learning. While it
does not cure the disease, it can slow the progression of cognitive symptoms.
6. A patient with Schizophrenia exhibits a lack of emotional expression, poverty of
speech, and an inability to experience pleasure. These are categorized as:
A. Positive symptoms
B. Cognitive symptoms
C. Negative symptoms
D. Affective symptoms
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Negative symptoms represent a loss or diminution of normal
functions, such as blunted affect and alogia. These symptoms are often more
debilitating and harder to treat than positive symptoms like hallucinations. Second-
Health Exam 4 Version 3 | Questions with Correct
Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question
| Regis
1. A 10-year-old child presents with symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and
inattention. Which medication is considered the first-line pharmacological treatment
for this patient?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Sertraline
C. Risperidone
D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication that is generally
the first-line treatment for pediatric ADHD. It works by increasing the levels of
dopamine and norepinephrine in the synapses. Clinicians should monitor the
patient’s height and weight frequently to watch for growth suppression.
2. In Bowenian family therapy, which concept refers to the process of a third person
being brought into a two-person conflict to reduce anxiety?
A. Differentiation of self
,B. Emotional cutoff
C. Multigenerational transmission
D. Triangulation
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Triangulation occurs when two people in a family system have
a conflict and involve a third party to stabilize the relationship. While it reduces
immediate tension, it prevents the original two people from resolving their issues
directly. Managing these triangles is a key goal for the Bowenian therapist.
3. An elderly patient taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder reports new onset of ataxia,
coarse tremors, and confusion. What is the most appropriate next step for the
PMHNP?
A. Order a serum Lithium level immediately
B. Increase the dose to treat worsening mania
C. Switch the patient to a different mood stabilizer
D. Prescribe a benzodiazepine for the tremors
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Ataxia, coarse tremors, and confusion are classic signs of
Lithium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. Elderly patients are at higher risk
,for toxicity due to reduced renal clearance. A serum level must be checked to
confirm toxicity and determine the severity of the situation.
4. Which side effect is the most common reason for male patients to discontinue
treatment with SSRIs like Paroxetine?
A. Weight loss
B. Hyperactivity
C. Sexual dysfunction
D. Alopecia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Sexual dysfunction, including delayed ejaculation and reduced
libido, is a very frequent side effect of SSRI therapy. Many patients find this side
effect distressing and may stop their medication without consulting their provider.
PMHNPs should proactively discuss this possibility and consider alternatives like
Bupropion if it occurs.
5. A patient is prescribed Donepezil (Aricept) for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s
disease. What is the mechanism of action for this medication?
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. GABA agonist
, C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
D. NMDA receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Donepezil works by inhibiting the enzyme
acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine in the brain. This increases
the availability of acetylcholine, which is involved in memory and learning. While it
does not cure the disease, it can slow the progression of cognitive symptoms.
6. A patient with Schizophrenia exhibits a lack of emotional expression, poverty of
speech, and an inability to experience pleasure. These are categorized as:
A. Positive symptoms
B. Cognitive symptoms
C. Negative symptoms
D. Affective symptoms
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Negative symptoms represent a loss or diminution of normal
functions, such as blunted affect and alogia. These symptoms are often more
debilitating and harder to treat than positive symptoms like hallucinations. Second-
