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NUR 220 | NUR 220 Medical Surgical Nursing Exam 3 Version 3 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question | Baltimore City Community College

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NUR 220 | NUR 220 Medical Surgical Nursing Exam 3 Version 3 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question | Baltimore City Community College

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NUR 220 | NUR 220 Medical Surgical Nursing Exam
3 Version 3 | Questions with Correct Answers and
Expert Explanation for Each Question | Baltimore
City Community College
1. A patient with sickle cell anemia is admitted in a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which

nursing intervention should be prioritized first?

A. Administering high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask


B. Administering prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate


C. Initiating intravenous fluid replacement at 200 mL/hr


D. Applying cold compresses to the affected painful joints


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: In a sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis, the priority is to reduce

blood viscosity and improve perfusion to distal tissues. Intravenous hydration helps

dilute the concentrated red blood cells and promotes the flow of oxygenated blood.

While pain management and oxygen are important, they are often secondary to

resolving the mechanical blockage of vessels. Cold compresses should be avoided as

they cause vasoconstriction and worsen the sickling process. Effective hydration is

the cornerstone of preventing permanent organ damage during these acute

episodes.

,2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which

action is essential for patient safety during the first 15 minutes of the transfusion?

A. Infusing the blood at a rapid rate of 150 mL/hr to complete the unit quickly


B. Remaining at the bedside to monitor for signs of a hemolytic reaction


C. Mixing the blood with 5% Dextrose in Water to prevent clotting


D. Checking the patient’s temperature every 30 minutes throughout the process


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: The first 15 minutes of a blood transfusion are the most

critical for detecting life-threatening acute hemolytic reactions. The nurse must stay

with the patient to observe for symptoms like fever, chills, back pain, or dyspnea.

The infusion should be started slowly, typically no faster than 2 mL/min, to limit the

severity of any potential reaction. Only normal saline should be used as a primary

line fluid to avoid hemolysis or clotting in the tubing. Constant monitoring during

this window allows for immediate cessation of the infusion if complications arise.


3. A patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is showing signs of

active bleeding. Which laboratory finding most specifically supports this diagnosis?

A. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels


B. Decreased Prothrombin Time (PT) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)


C. Elevated platelet count and decreased serum potassium

,D. Elevated D-dimer and decreased fibrinogen levels


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: DIC is characterized by the simultaneous occurrence of

massive clotting and systemic bleeding. Elevated D-dimer levels indicate high levels

of fibrin degradation products, which occur when the body tries to break down

excessive clots. Fibrinogen is consumed during the clotting process, leading to the

low levels seen in active DIC cases. Prothrombin time and PTT are typically

prolonged, not decreased, due to the consumption of clotting factors. Identifying

these specific lab markers is essential for differentiating DIC from other hematologic

disorders.


4. A patient is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The nurse should include which

information in the discharge teaching plan?

A. The patient will need oral Vitamin B12 supplements for the next six months


B. Increasing dietary intake of leafy green vegetables will cure the condition


C. Monthly intramuscular Vitamin B12 injections will be required for life


D. The patient should avoid all dairy products to improve iron absorption


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, which

is necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Because the body cannot

, absorb oral B12, parenteral administration via intramuscular injection is the

standard treatment. This therapy is lifelong because the underlying gastric

pathology generally does not resolve. Failure to maintain these injections can lead to

irreversible neurological damage and severe anemia. Patient education must

emphasize that dietary changes alone are insufficient to manage this specific type of

anemia.


5. The nurse is caring for a patient with a white blood cell count of 1,200/mm3 and a

neutrophil count of 400/mm3. Which intervention is most critical for this patient?

A. Encouraging the patient to eat fresh fruits and salads to boost immunity


B. Placing the patient in a private room with reverse isolation precautions


C. Administering aspirin for any fever over 100 degrees Fahrenheit


D. Assisting the patient with vigorous tooth brushing and flossing twice daily


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: The patient is severely neutropenic, which puts them at

extreme risk for life-threatening infections from opportunistic organisms. Reverse

isolation, or neutropenic precautions, helps protect the patient from bacteria carried

by staff and visitors. Fresh fruits and vegetables should be avoided because they

may harbor soil-borne bacteria or fungi. Oral care should be gentle to prevent

mucosal trauma that could serve as a portal for infection. Low-grade fevers in

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