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Exam 1: NUR160/ NUR 160 (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) Nursing Fundamentals: Comprehensive Exam Solutions with NGN Style Questions and Answers| Complete Test Bank| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Hondros

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This official comprehensive test bank for NUR 160 Exam 1 at Hondros College of Nursing covers Nursing Fundamentals for the 2026/2027 academic year first examination. It features NGN-style (Next Generation NCLEX) questions and answers with detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, drag-and-drop, cloze (fill-in-the-blank), and clinical judgment case study formats aligned with practical nursing program standards and the NCLEX Test Plan. NURSING FUNDAMENTALS CORE CONCEPTS (EXAM 1 FOCUS) PROFESSIONAL NURSING AND ETHICAL-LEGAL FOUNDATIONS Question 1: Nurse Practice Act A nurse is reviewing the Nurse Practice Act of the state where they are employed. Which action by the nurse would be outside the scope of practice as defined by the Nurse Practice Act? A) Administering medications as prescribed by a healthcare provider B) Delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) according to facility policy C) Performing a surgical procedure independently without physician supervision D) Providing patient education on disease management and preventive care Correct Answer: C Rationale: The Nurse Practice Act in each state defines the legal scope of practice for nurses, which includes medication administration, patient education, and appropriate delegation. Performing surgical procedures independently is beyond the nursing scope of practice and requires a physician or advanced practice provider. The Nurse Practice Act protects the public by ensuring that nurses practice within their defined competencies and legal boundaries. Question 2: Good Samaritan Law A nurse is off duty and witnesses a motor vehicle accident. They stop to assist an injured person. Which statement accurately reflects the protection offered by Good Samaritan laws? A) The nurse is protected from liability as long as they act within their scope of practice and without gross negligence B) The nurse is immune from all lawsuits regardless of their actions C) The nurse is only protected if they identify themselves as a nurse before providing care D) Good Samaritan laws only protect physicians and emergency medical personnel Correct Answer: A Rationale: Good Samaritan laws protect healthcare professionals from civil liability when they provide emergency care at the scene of an accident, provided they act reasonably, within their scope of practice, and without gross negligence or willful misconduct. The nurse must not expect compensation for their services. These laws are designed to encourage bystanders to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. Question 3: Patient Self-Determination Act Which situation would be a violation of the Patient Self-Determination Act? A) A nurse respects a patient's advance directive and does not perform CPR as requested B) A hospital fails to provide written information about advance directives upon admission C) A patient is allowed to refuse a blood transfusion based on religious beliefs D) A healthcare proxy is consulted when the patient is incapacitated Correct Answer: B Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare facilities to inform patients in writing of their rights to make healthcare decisions, including the right to accept or refuse treatment and the right to formulate advance directives. Failure to provide this information upon admission is a direct violation of the PSDA. The law was enacted to support patients' autonomy and self-determination in healthcare decisions. Question 4: Informed Consent A nurse is witnessing a patient sign an informed consent form for a surgical procedure. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A) Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient B) Ensuring the patient understands the information provided by the physician and is signing voluntarily C) Deciding whether the patient is competent to consent D) Persuading the patient to sign if they are unsure about the procedure Correct Answer: B Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the patient's signature and verify that the patient appears to understand the information provided by the physician and is signing voluntarily. The physician is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse should not persuade the patient or make determinations about competence without proper assessment. Question 5: HIPAA Privacy Rule Which action by a nurse constitutes a violation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule? A) Discussing a patient's condition with the healthcare team during shift report in a private area B) Accessing the medical record of a patient on a different unit out of curiosity C) Providing a patient with a copy of their medical records upon request D) Sharing patient information with another healthcare provider involved in the patient's care Correct Answer: B Rationale: HIPAA requires healthcare providers to access only the minimum necessary patient information needed to perform their job duties. Accessing a patient's medical record out of curiosity without a legitimate treatment, payment, or operations purpose violates HIPAA. Sharing information with the healthcare team during shift report, providing records to the patient upon request, and sharing information with providers involved in care are all permitted under HIPAA. INFECTION CONTROL AND SAFETY Question 6: Chain of Infection A nurse is caring for a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which element of the chain of infection is represented by the contaminated wound dressing? A) Reservoir B) Portal of exit C) Mode of transmission D) Portal of entry Correct Answer: B Rationale: The portal of exit is the path by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir. In this scenario, the contaminated wound dressing contains the infectious material (MRSA) that has exited the patient's wound. The reservoir is the patient/wound itself; the mode of transmission would be contact with the dressing; and the portal of entry would be how the organism enters another host (e.g., through broken skin or mucous membranes). Question 7: Hand Hygiene Indications A nurse is preparing to care for a patient. According to the CDC's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene," when should the nurse perform hand hygiene? (Select all that apply) A) Before touching the patient B) Immediately after removing gloves C) Before performing a clean procedure D) After touching the patient's surroundings E) Before documenting care in the computer Correct Answers: A, B, C, D Rationale: The CDC's 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene include: 1) Before touching a patient, 2) Before clean/aseptic procedures, 3) After body fluid exposure risk, 4) After touching a patient, and 5) After touching patient surroundings. Removing gloves is considered after body fluid exposure risk. Documentation in a computer is not a patient care moment requiring hand hygiene unless the hands are soiled. Question 8: Standard Precautions A nurse is providing care to a patient with a draining wound. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse wear to comply with Standard Precautions? (Select all that apply) A) Gloves B) Gown C) N95 respirator D) Eye protection E) Goggles

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NUR 160 Exam 1 Latest 2026/2027 Exam

Questions and Verified Answers with

Detailed Rationales Grade A – Hondros




Question 1: What is Just Culture regarding worker protection?

Correct Answer: In Just Culture, workers are protected from disciplinary

action when they report injuries, errors, or near misses.

Rationale:

1. Just Culture balances accountability with a non-punitive approach to

human error.

2. Protecting workers who report incidents encourages transparency and safety

improvement.

3. Without this protection, errors would be hidden, preventing system-wide

learning.

4. This concept distinguishes human error from reckless behavior, which may

still carry consequences.

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5. Understanding Just Culture helps students advocate for safe reporting

environments.



Question 2: What is an example of a close-ended question?

Correct Answer: An example of a close-ended question is "What is your

name?"

Rationale:

1. Close-ended questions elicit specific, short answers, often yes/no or a

single fact.

2. "What is your name?" requires a factual response with limited elaboration.

3. These questions are useful for obtaining concrete information quickly.

4. Overuse of close-ended questions can limit therapeutic communication.

5. Students must distinguish close-ended from open-ended questions for

effective patient interviewing.



Question 3: What is false reassurance?

Correct Answer: False reassurance is demonstrated by the statement

"Everything will be fine."

Rationale:

1. False reassurance minimizes genuine patient concerns without evidence.

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2. Saying "Everything will be fine" dismisses the patient's fears and may be

untrue.

3. This communication technique is non-therapeutic and damages trust.

4. Instead, nurses should acknowledge feelings and provide accurate

information.

5. Recognizing false reassurance helps students avoid this common

communication error.



Question 4: Why should a nurse assess a patient?

Correct Answer: A nurse should assess a patient to identify changes in

patient condition and to help foresee areas of concern.

Rationale:

1. Assessment is the first step of the nursing process.

2. Identifying changes allows for early intervention before deterioration occurs.

3. Foreseeing areas of concern enables preventive nursing actions.

4. Without ongoing assessment, complications may go unrecognized.

5. This foundational concept supports clinical judgment and patient safety.



Question 5: Who performs the initial assessment?

Correct Answer: The RN performs the initial assessment.

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Rationale:

1. Initial assessment requires the clinical judgment and scope of practice of a

registered nurse.

2. Licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs)

cannot perform the initial assessment.

3. The RN analyzes data and develops the nursing care plan based on the initial

assessment.

4. Delegation of assessment tasks is limited by state nurse practice acts.

5. This is a frequently tested scope-of-practice question.



Question 6: When should an initial assessment be done?

Correct Answer: An initial assessment should be done within 24 hours.

Rationale:

1. Regulatory standards (e.g., The Joint Commission) require a nursing

assessment within 24 hours of admission.

2. This timeframe ensures timely identification of patient needs.

3. Critical care areas may require assessment more frequently (e.g., every shift or

hour).

4. Delayed assessment risks missing urgent problems.

5. Students must know this standard for inpatient admission procedures.

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