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NUR160/ NUR 160 Exam 1: (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) Nursing Fundamentals: Comprehensive Exam Solutions with NGN Style Questions and Answers| Complete Test Bank| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Hondros

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This official comprehensive test bank for NUR 160 Exam 1 at Hondros College of Nursing covers Nursing Fundamentals for the 2026/2027 academic year first examination. It features NGN-style (Next Generation NCLEX) questions and answers with detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, drag-and-drop, cloze (fill-in-the-blank), and clinical judgment case study formats aligned with practical nursing program standards and the NCLEX Test Plan. NURSING FUNDAMENTALS CORE CONCEPTS (EXAM 1 FOCUS) PROFESSIONAL NURSING AND ETHICAL-LEGAL FOUNDATIONS Question 1: Nurse Practice Act A nurse is reviewing the Nurse Practice Act of the state where they are employed. Which action by the nurse would be outside the scope of practice as defined by the Nurse Practice Act? A) Administering medications as prescribed by a healthcare provider B) Delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) according to facility policy C) Performing a surgical procedure independently without physician supervision D) Providing patient education on disease management and preventive care Correct Answer: C Rationale: The Nurse Practice Act in each state defines the legal scope of practice for nurses, which includes medication administration, patient education, and appropriate delegation. Performing surgical procedures independently is beyond the nursing scope of practice and requires a physician or advanced practice provider. The Nurse Practice Act protects the public by ensuring that nurses practice within their defined competencies and legal boundaries. Question 2: Good Samaritan Law A nurse is off duty and witnesses a motor vehicle accident. They stop to assist an injured person. Which statement accurately reflects the protection offered by Good Samaritan laws? A) The nurse is protected from liability as long as they act within their scope of practice and without gross negligence B) The nurse is immune from all lawsuits regardless of their actions C) The nurse is only protected if they identify themselves as a nurse before providing care D) Good Samaritan laws only protect physicians and emergency medical personnel Correct Answer: A Rationale: Good Samaritan laws protect healthcare professionals from civil liability when they provide emergency care at the scene of an accident, provided they act reasonably, within their scope of practice, and without gross negligence or willful misconduct. The nurse must not expect compensation for their services. These laws are designed to encourage bystanders to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. Question 3: Patient Self-Determination Act Which situation would be a violation of the Patient Self-Determination Act? A) A nurse respects a patient's advance directive and does not perform CPR as requested B) A hospital fails to provide written information about advance directives upon admission C) A patient is allowed to refuse a blood transfusion based on religious beliefs D) A healthcare proxy is consulted when the patient is incapacitated Correct Answer: B Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare facilities to inform patients in writing of their rights to make healthcare decisions, including the right to accept or refuse treatment and the right to formulate advance directives. Failure to provide this information upon admission is a direct violation of the PSDA. The law was enacted to support patients' autonomy and self-determination in healthcare decisions. Question 4: Informed Consent A nurse is witnessing a patient sign an informed consent form for a surgical procedure. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A) Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient B) Ensuring the patient understands the information provided by the physician and is signing voluntarily C) Deciding whether the patient is competent to consent D) Persuading the patient to sign if they are unsure about the procedure Correct Answer: B Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the patient's signature and verify that the patient appears to understand the information provided by the physician and is signing voluntarily. The physician is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse should not persuade the patient or make determinations about competence without proper assessment. Question 5: HIPAA Privacy Rule Which action by a nurse constitutes a violation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule? A) Discussing a patient's condition with the healthcare team during shift report in a private area B) Accessing the medical record of a patient on a different unit out of curiosity C) Providing a patient with a copy of their medical records upon request D) Sharing patient information with another healthcare provider involved in the patient's care Correct Answer: B Rationale: HIPAA requires healthcare providers to access only the minimum necessary patient information needed to perform their job duties. Accessing a patient's medical record out of curiosity without a legitimate treatment, payment, or operations purpose violates HIPAA. Sharing information with the healthcare team during shift report, providing records to the patient upon request, and sharing information with providers involved in care are all permitted under HIPAA. INFECTION CONTROL AND SAFETY Question 6: Chain of Infection A nurse is caring for a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which element of the chain of infection is represented by the contaminated wound dressing? A) Reservoir B) Portal of exit C) Mode of transmission D) Portal of entry Correct Answer: B Rationale: The portal of exit is the path by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir. In this scenario, the contaminated wound dressing contains the infectious material (MRSA) that has exited the patient's wound. The reservoir is the patient/wound itself; the mode of transmission would be contact with the dressing; and the portal of entry would be how the organism enters another host (e.g., through broken skin or mucous membranes). Question 7: Hand Hygiene Indications A nurse is preparing to care for a patient. According to the CDC's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene," when should the nurse perform hand hygiene? (Select all that apply) A) Before touching the patient B) Immediately after removing gloves C) Before performing a clean procedure D) After touching the patient's surroundings E) Before documenting care in the computer Correct Answers: A, B, C, D Rationale: The CDC's 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene include: 1) Before touching a patient, 2) Before clean/aseptic procedures, 3) After body fluid exposure risk, 4) After touching a patient, and 5) After touching patient surroundings. Removing gloves is considered after body fluid exposure risk. Documentation in a computer is not a patient care moment requiring hand hygiene unless the hands are soiled. Question 8: Standard Precautions A nurse is providing care to a patient with a draining wound. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse wear to comply with Standard Precautions? (Select all that apply) A) Gloves B) Gown C) N95 respirator D) Eye protection E) Goggles

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NUR 160: Exam Latest 2026–2027

Comprehensive Exam Material with

Questions and Answers - Hondros


Question 1: What is a sentinel event?

Correct Answer: A sentinel event is an unexpected event resulting in death,

serious injury, or psychological harm.

Rationale:

1. This definition establishes that sentinel events are unexpected, not routine or

anticipated outcomes.

2. The consequences include death, serious injury, or psychological harm,

highlighting the need for immediate investigation.

3. Understanding sentinel events helps students identify when root cause

analysis is required to prevent recurrence.

4. In nursing exams, recognizing sentinel events triggers reporting and quality

improvement protocols.

5. This knowledge builds clinical judgment by distinguishing serious adverse

events from minor errors.

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Question 2: What does SBAR stand for and what is its purpose?

Correct Answer: SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment,

Recommendation, and it is a communication tool.

Rationale:

1. SBAR provides a standardized framework for handoff and critical

communication among healthcare providers.

2. Each component serves a specific purpose to ensure complete and clear

information transfer.

3. Using SBAR reduces the risk of missed information and improves patient

safety.

4. This tool is endorsed by The Joint Commission and is frequently tested in

nursing examinations.

5. Mastering SBAR enhances clinical judgment by organizing clinical thinking

before communicating with providers.



Question 3: In SBAR, what does "Situation" refer to?

Correct Answer: In SBAR, "Situation" refers to what is happening right now.

Rationale:

1. The Situation component provides a concise statement of the current problem

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or change in condition.

2. It answers the question, "Why am I calling or reporting right now?"

3. This element sets the urgency and context for the receiver.

4. Students must differentiate Situation (current event) from Background (past

history).

5. Proper Situation reporting prevents delays in critical interventions.



Question 4: In SBAR, what does "Background" refer to?

Correct Answer: In SBAR, "Background" refers to relevant patient history or

context.

Rationale:

1. Background provides essential contextual information that explains why the

current situation matters.

2. This includes diagnoses, medications, allergies, code status, and recent

relevant events.

3. Too little background omits critical data; too much background wastes time.

4. Students should focus on background information directly related to the

current problem.

5. Effective Background communication supports accurate clinical decision-

making by receiving providers.

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Question 5: In SBAR, what does "Assessment" refer to?

Correct Answer: In SBAR, "Assessment" refers to the nurse's analysis of the

problem.

Rationale:

1. Assessment is the nurse's clinical judgment, not just raw data.

2. This component demonstrates critical thinking by interpreting vital signs,

assessment findings, and trends.

3. A strong Assessment answers, "What do I think is happening?"

4. Students often struggle with Assessment because it requires synthesis, not just

reporting.

5. Improving Assessment communication builds clinical judgment and

professional autonomy.



Question 6: In SBAR, what does "Recommendation" refer to?

Correct Answer: In SBAR, "Recommendation" refers to what the nurse needs

or suggests.

Rationale:

1. Recommendation is the action-oriented component that requests a specific

response.

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