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NUR160/ NUR 160 Final Exam: (Latest 2026 Update) Nursing Fundamentals: Complete Exam Practice Questions and Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales| Comprehensive Final Review| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Hondros

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive final exam study resource for NUR 160 Nursing Fundamentals at Hondros College of Nursing covers the 2026 academic year final examination. It features exam practice questions with verified answers and detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, and clinical judgment formats aligned with practical nursing program standards. This complete final review consolidates all essential nursing fundamentals content from the entire course, including: INFECTION CONTROL & SAFETY (FINAL EXAM FOCUS) Chain of Infection and Breaking the Chain Question 1: Chain of Infection A nurse is caring for a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which element of the chain of infection is represented by the contaminated wound dressing? A) Reservoir B) Portal of exit C) Mode of transmission D) Portal of entry Correct Answer: B Rationale: The portal of exit is the path by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir. In this scenario, the contaminated wound dressing contains the infectious material (MRSA) that has exited the patient's wound. The reservoir is the patient/wound itself; the mode of transmission would be contact with the dressing; and the portal of entry would be how the organism enters another host (e.g., through broken skin or mucous membranes). Question 2: Breaking the Chain of Infection A nurse is implementing infection control measures to break the chain of infection. Which action directly targets the mode of transmission? A) Placing a patient with active tuberculosis in a negative pressure room B) Administering antibiotics to treat a bacterial infection C) Ensuring proper nutrition to support the patient's immune system D) Keeping the patient's skin clean and dry to maintain integrity Correct Answer: A Rationale: The mode of transmission is how the infectious agent is spread (contact, droplet, airborne). Placing a patient with tuberculosis in a negative pressure room with proper ventilation interrupts airborne transmission by containing and removing infectious droplet nuclei from the air. Treating infection targets the infectious agent; nutrition and skin integrity support host resistance. Hand Hygiene and Standard Precautions Question 3: Hand Hygiene Indications A nurse is preparing to care for a patient. According to the CDC's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene," when should the nurse perform hand hygiene? (Select all that apply) A) Before touching the patient B) Immediately after removing gloves C) Before performing a clean procedure D) After touching the patient's surroundings E) Before documenting care in the computer Correct Answers: A, B, C, D Rationale: The CDC's 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene include: 1) Before touching a patient, 2) Before clean/aseptic procedures, 3) After body fluid exposure risk, 4) After touching a patient, and 5) After touching patient surroundings. Removing gloves is considered after body fluid exposure risk. Documentation in a computer is not a patient care moment requiring hand hygiene unless the hands are visibly soiled. Question 4: Standard Precautions A nurse is providing care to a patient with a draining wound. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse wear to comply with Standard Precautions? (Select all that apply) A) Gloves B) Gown C) N95 respirator D) Eye protection E) Goggles Correct Answers: A, B, D, E Rationale: Standard Precautions apply to all patients regardless of diagnosis. For a draining wound where there is potential for splashing or spraying of body fluids, the nurse should wear gloves, a gown (to protect clothing), and eye protection (goggles or face shield). An N95 respirator is required for airborne precautions (e.g., TB, measles, chickenpox), not for Standard Precautions for wound drainage (unless aerosol-generating procedures are performed). Transmission-Based Precautions Question 5: Contact Precautions A patient is admitted with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which infection control measures should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply) A) Use alcohol-based hand rub for hand hygiene after patient contact B) Wear a gown and gloves upon entering the patient's room C) Place the patient in a private room or cohort with another C. diff patient D) Use dedicated patient care equipment (stethoscope, BP cuff) that remains in the room E) Ensure the patient wears a mask when transported outside the room Correct Answers: B, C, D

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NUR 160 Final Exam Latest 2026/2027
Practice Questions and Verified Answers Full
Study Test - Hondros



Question 1: How do you perform pursed lip breathing?

Correct Answer: Inhale through the nose and exhale out the mouth through

pursed lips.

Rationale:

1. Inhaling through the nose warms and humidifies air.

2. Exhaling through pursed lips creates back pressure, keeping airways open.

3. This technique reduces air trapping and shortness of breath in COPD patients.

4. Exhalation should be twice as long as inhalation.

5. This is a standard COPD self-management technique.



Question 2: What is a normal PSA level?

Correct Answer: 0-4 ng/mL.

Rationale:

1. PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a screening test for prostate cancer.

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2. Normal range is typically 0-4 ng/mL.

3. Elevated PSA may indicate prostate cancer, BPH, or prostatitis.

4. This is a standard cancer screening question.



Question 3: What is important to know about Proscar (finasteride)?

Correct Answer: Don't take if trying to have a baby because it decreases the

prostate.

Rationale:

1. Proscar causes birth defects in male fetuses (hypospadias).

2. Men should not donate sperm or conceive while taking it.

3. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed tablets.

4. Proscar shrinks the prostate for BPH treatment.

5. This is a standard medication safety question.



Question 4: What helps provide closure, informed choices, and

alleviation of symptoms?

Correct Answer: Palliative care.

Rationale:

1. Palliative care focuses on symptom relief and quality of life.

2. It helps patients make informed choices about their care.

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3. It provides emotional and spiritual closure support.

4. It can be given alongside curative treatment.

5. This is a standard end-of-life care question.



Question 5: What should you say to help a grieving family?

Correct Answer: "I understand you are missing your family" and "Tell me

how you are feeling."

Rationale:

1. Open-ended statements invite expression of feelings.

2. Validating statements ("I understand") show empathy.

3. Avoid platitudes ("They're in a better place").

4. Therapeutic communication supports grieving families.

5. This is a grief and therapeutic communication question.



Question 6: What are expected findings after a TURP procedure?

Correct Answer: Red/pink urine and clots in the bag.

Rationale:

1. Pink to light red urine is normal for several days after TURP.

2. Small clots are expected and should drain via continuous bladder irrigation

(CBI).

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3. Bright red blood or large clots indicate bleeding.

4. This is a standard post-TURP question.



Question 7: A patient had a prostate resection. What should they expect

post-operatively?

Correct Answer: Continuous bladder irrigation (CBI).

Rationale:

1. CBI prevents clot formation and obstruction after TURP.

2. It continuously irrigates the bladder with sterile solution.

3. This is standard post-operative care for prostate resection.

4. This is a standard urology question.



Question 8: How long does bereavement stay last?

Correct Answer: 1 year.

Rationale:

1. Bereavement support is available for up to 13 months under Medicare hospice

benefit.

2. Support includes counseling, support groups, and resource referral.

3. This is a standard hospice question.

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