1
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
NGN Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-
Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT]
1. The PN is assigned to care for a client who has a new cast on the right arm. Which task should
the PN delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing the client's capillary refill in the affected hand.
B. Teaching the client how to keep the cast dry while showering.
C. Assisting the client with ambulation to the bathroom.
D. Evaluating the client’s pain level using the 0-10 scale.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task that falls within the scope of UAP
practice. The PN cannot delegate assessment (A), evaluation (D), or teaching (B) as these require
professional nursing judgment and licensure. Delegation requires ensuring the right task, right
circumstance, right person, right direction, and supervision.
2. A client is admitted to the facility with a diagnosis of active tuberculosis (TB). The PN knows
that transmission of TB is prevented by implementing which type of precautions?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TB is an airborne pathogen spread via droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air.
Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator by
,2
healthcare providers. Contact precautions (A) are for direct/indirect contact transmission (e.g.,
MRSA), and Droplet precautions (B) are for larger droplets (e.g., influenza). Standard
precautions (D) are used for all clients but are insufficient for TB alone.
3. A client with dementia attempts to get out of bed repeatedly despite frequent reminders. The
physician has ordered bilateral soft wrist restraints. The PN knows that which action is required
when applying restraints?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails to prevent movement.
B. Apply the restraint so it fits snugly against the skin.
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application.
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after restraint application.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order, specifying the duration and reason. Ties
must never be secured to the side rails (A) because they can cause injury if the rails are lowered.
The restraint should allow for two fingers of width (B) to prevent circulation impairment.
Observations must be made every 15 to 30 minutes (D), not hourly, to monitor for skin integrity,
circulation, and respiratory status.
4. The PN is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a total knee replacement.
The client reports pain of 7/10. The client has a prescription for hydromorphone 2 mg IV every 4
hours PRN for pain. The last dose was administered 6 hours ago. What is the PN’s priority
action?
A. Administer the prescribed hydromorphone immediately.
B. Apply ice to the surgical site and elevate the leg.
C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
D. Notify the RN regarding the medication request.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has a valid prescription for pain medication, is due for the dose (over 4
hours since last dose), and is reporting significant pain. The PN scope of practice includes
,3
medication administration for controlled substances in many states (or under facility protocol).
Administering the medication is the priority intervention to relieve pain. Ice and elevation (B)
are adjunctive but not the primary priority for acute pain. Relaxation (C) is insufficient for 7/10
pain. Notifying the RN (D) is unnecessary if the PN has the authority to administer the PRN.
5. The PN is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which client identification
method is required?
A. Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth.
B. Check the client's identification band against the blood compatibility report.
C. Verify the client's room number matches the blood bank label.
D. Ask a family member to confirm the client's identity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strict verification protocols must be followed: check the client's ID band, the blood
component label, and the compatibility report (type and crossmatch) to ensure they match
exactly. Two identifiers (name and date of birth) must be used. Asking the client (A) is part of the
process, but comparing the physical band to the paperwork is the safety standard. Room numbers
(C) should never be used as the sole identifier. Family members (D) are not reliable identifiers.
6. A client with a history of falls has a prescription for bed alarm. The PN enters the room and
finds the bed alarm turned off. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Reprimand the UAP who was last in the room.
B. Turn the bed alarm back on immediately.
C. Move the client to a room closer to the nurses' station.
D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The immediate safety risk is the client falling without an alarm. The first action is to
restore the safety measure by turning the alarm on. Reprimanding the UAP (A) is non-
therapeutic and does not solve the immediate risk. Moving the client (C) is unnecessary if the
alarm works. Documentation (D) is important but occurs after the client's safety is ensured.
, 4
7. The PN is observing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric
tube. The client reports feeling "full" and nauseous. What is the first action the PN should take?
A. Stop the tube feeding.
B. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
C. Check the residual volume.
D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Symptoms of fullness and nausea suggest potential intolerance or aspiration risk. The
first action is to stop the infusion to prevent further vomiting or aspiration. After stopping, the
PN should then check residual (C) and assess the patient. Antiemetics (B) or repositioning (D)
are secondary interventions after the source is removed.
8. The PN is caring for a client on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). The
PN must ensure the UAP performs which action when removing personal protective equipment
(PPE)?
A. Remove the gown before removing the gloves.
B. Perform hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
C. Dispose of the gown and gloves in the client's room trash.
D. Remove the N95 respirator before leaving the room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PPE for contact precautions (gown and gloves) should be removed and disposed of
inside the client's room to prevent contamination of the environment outside the room. Gloves
are removed before the gown (A) to avoid contamination of skin. Alcohol-based sanitizer (B) is
ineffective against C. diff spores; soap and water are required. An N95 (D) is for airborne
precautions, not contact.
9. A client with a terminal illness has a living will. The PN understands that this document:
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
NGN Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-
Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT]
1. The PN is assigned to care for a client who has a new cast on the right arm. Which task should
the PN delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing the client's capillary refill in the affected hand.
B. Teaching the client how to keep the cast dry while showering.
C. Assisting the client with ambulation to the bathroom.
D. Evaluating the client’s pain level using the 0-10 scale.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task that falls within the scope of UAP
practice. The PN cannot delegate assessment (A), evaluation (D), or teaching (B) as these require
professional nursing judgment and licensure. Delegation requires ensuring the right task, right
circumstance, right person, right direction, and supervision.
2. A client is admitted to the facility with a diagnosis of active tuberculosis (TB). The PN knows
that transmission of TB is prevented by implementing which type of precautions?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TB is an airborne pathogen spread via droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air.
Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator by
,2
healthcare providers. Contact precautions (A) are for direct/indirect contact transmission (e.g.,
MRSA), and Droplet precautions (B) are for larger droplets (e.g., influenza). Standard
precautions (D) are used for all clients but are insufficient for TB alone.
3. A client with dementia attempts to get out of bed repeatedly despite frequent reminders. The
physician has ordered bilateral soft wrist restraints. The PN knows that which action is required
when applying restraints?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails to prevent movement.
B. Apply the restraint so it fits snugly against the skin.
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application.
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after restraint application.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order, specifying the duration and reason. Ties
must never be secured to the side rails (A) because they can cause injury if the rails are lowered.
The restraint should allow for two fingers of width (B) to prevent circulation impairment.
Observations must be made every 15 to 30 minutes (D), not hourly, to monitor for skin integrity,
circulation, and respiratory status.
4. The PN is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a total knee replacement.
The client reports pain of 7/10. The client has a prescription for hydromorphone 2 mg IV every 4
hours PRN for pain. The last dose was administered 6 hours ago. What is the PN’s priority
action?
A. Administer the prescribed hydromorphone immediately.
B. Apply ice to the surgical site and elevate the leg.
C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
D. Notify the RN regarding the medication request.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has a valid prescription for pain medication, is due for the dose (over 4
hours since last dose), and is reporting significant pain. The PN scope of practice includes
,3
medication administration for controlled substances in many states (or under facility protocol).
Administering the medication is the priority intervention to relieve pain. Ice and elevation (B)
are adjunctive but not the primary priority for acute pain. Relaxation (C) is insufficient for 7/10
pain. Notifying the RN (D) is unnecessary if the PN has the authority to administer the PRN.
5. The PN is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which client identification
method is required?
A. Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth.
B. Check the client's identification band against the blood compatibility report.
C. Verify the client's room number matches the blood bank label.
D. Ask a family member to confirm the client's identity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strict verification protocols must be followed: check the client's ID band, the blood
component label, and the compatibility report (type and crossmatch) to ensure they match
exactly. Two identifiers (name and date of birth) must be used. Asking the client (A) is part of the
process, but comparing the physical band to the paperwork is the safety standard. Room numbers
(C) should never be used as the sole identifier. Family members (D) are not reliable identifiers.
6. A client with a history of falls has a prescription for bed alarm. The PN enters the room and
finds the bed alarm turned off. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Reprimand the UAP who was last in the room.
B. Turn the bed alarm back on immediately.
C. Move the client to a room closer to the nurses' station.
D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The immediate safety risk is the client falling without an alarm. The first action is to
restore the safety measure by turning the alarm on. Reprimanding the UAP (A) is non-
therapeutic and does not solve the immediate risk. Moving the client (C) is unnecessary if the
alarm works. Documentation (D) is important but occurs after the client's safety is ensured.
, 4
7. The PN is observing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric
tube. The client reports feeling "full" and nauseous. What is the first action the PN should take?
A. Stop the tube feeding.
B. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
C. Check the residual volume.
D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Symptoms of fullness and nausea suggest potential intolerance or aspiration risk. The
first action is to stop the infusion to prevent further vomiting or aspiration. After stopping, the
PN should then check residual (C) and assess the patient. Antiemetics (B) or repositioning (D)
are secondary interventions after the source is removed.
8. The PN is caring for a client on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). The
PN must ensure the UAP performs which action when removing personal protective equipment
(PPE)?
A. Remove the gown before removing the gloves.
B. Perform hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
C. Dispose of the gown and gloves in the client's room trash.
D. Remove the N95 respirator before leaving the room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PPE for contact precautions (gown and gloves) should be removed and disposed of
inside the client's room to prevent contamination of the environment outside the room. Gloves
are removed before the gown (A) to avoid contamination of skin. Alcohol-based sanitizer (B) is
ineffective against C. diff spores; soap and water are required. An N95 (D) is for airborne
precautions, not contact.
9. A client with a terminal illness has a living will. The PN understands that this document:
