1
NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Comprehensive Health History & Interviewing — Questions 1-20]
Q1: During the History of Present Illness (HPI), which mnemonic is used to systematically
document the characteristics of the chief complaint?
A. AMPLE (Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events).
B. SAMPLE (Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events
leading up to).
C. OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Alleviating factors,
Radiation, Timing, Severity).
D. FAST (Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: OLDCARTS is the specific mnemonic used in advanced health assessment to
organize the chronological and qualitative details of the patient's current symptom(s). It ensures
no critical detail is missed before moving to the rest of the history. AMPLE (A) is typically used
for trauma/ER settings, and SAMPLE (B) is often used for emergency history taking. FAST (D)
is a stroke assessment tool.
Q2: A patient reports drinking a "six-pack of beer" every Friday and Saturday night. When
assessing alcohol use, which screening tool includes the questions "Have you ever felt you
should Cut down?", "Have people Annoyed you?", "Have you ever felt Guilty?", and "Have you
ever needed an Eye-opener?"?
A. PHQ-9.
B. CAGE.
C. AUDIT-C.
D. SMAST-G.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used, validated screening tool for alcohol use
disorder. A "yes" answer to two or more questions suggests a high likelihood of alcohol
dependence. PHQ-9 (A) is for depression, AUDIT-C (C) is a different alcohol screen focusing on
consumption, and SMAST-G (D) is the Short Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test-Geriatric.
Q3: When taking a medication history, which of the following is the MOST critical reason to ask
about herbal supplements and vitamins?
A. To judge the patient's compliance with prescribed meds.
B. To identify potential drug-herb interactions that could alter the efficacy or safety of prescribed
medications.
C. To determine if the patient can afford their prescriptions.
D. To assess if the patient believes in "natural" cures.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Herbal supplements can have significant pharmacological effects and interact with
prescription medications (e.g., St. John's Wort with SSRIs, Ginkgo Biloba with aspirin).
Identifying these is crucial for patient safety and clinical decision-making. Compliance (A) and
affordability (C) are important but secondary to the immediate safety risk of interactions.
Q4: In the Review of Systems (ROS), a patient reports "night sweats" and "weight loss" without
trying. In a constitutional assessment, these "B symptoms" are most suggestive of:
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Malignancy (cancer) or chronic infection (e.g., Tuberculosis).
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
D. Early onset menopause.
Correct Answer: B
,3
Rationale: Constitutional "B symptoms" (fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss) are red
flags for serious underlying pathology such as malignancy (lymphoma, solid tumors) or chronic
infections like TB. While metabolic (A) and psychiatric (C) conditions exist, they do not
typically present with this specific triad of symptoms.
Q5: Which question is part of the "functional assessment" within the Social History?
A. "Do you smoke cigarettes?"
B. "Are you currently employed?"
C. "Do you have difficulty performing your Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) like bathing or
dressing?"
D. "Do you wear a seatbelt?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Functional assessment evaluates the patient's ability to perform basic ADLs (bathing,
dressing, feeding, toileting, transferring, continence) or Instrumental ADLs (cooking, shopping).
This determines the level of independence and need for support. Smoking (A) and employment
(B) are standard social history, and seatbelts (D) are safety history.
Q6: A patient presents with chest pain. To differentiate the pain of pericarditis from myocardial
infarction, which specific question regarding "aggravating/alleviating factors" is most pertinent?
A. "Does the pain radiate to your left arm?"
B. "Is the pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin?"
C. "Does the pain worsen when you lie down and improve when you sit up and lean forward?"
D. "Is the pain associated with food intake?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pleuritic chest pain that worsens in the supine position and improves by sitting
up/leaning forward is the hallmark presentation of pericarditis (due to friction between
pericardial layers). Radiation (A) suggests MI, and relief with rest/nitro (B) suggests angina.
Food association (D) suggests GI etiology.
, 4
Q7: When documenting the Family History, which condition in a first-degree relative (parent,
sibling, child) is the strongest risk factor for the patient developing the same condition?
A. Essential Hypertension.
B. Type 1 Diabetes.
C. Hereditary Hemochromatosis (autosomal recessive, but highly penetrant in families).
D. Osteoarthritis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all options have genetic components, hereditary hemochromatosis is a single-
gene disorder where having a first-degree relative significantly increases the likelihood of the
patient carrying the gene mutation. Essential hypertension (A) and osteoarthritis (D) are
multifactorial. Type 1 diabetes (B) is autoimmune with a genetic link, but C represents a direct
Mendelian inheritance pattern often screened for in family history.
Q8: In the "Past Medical History," which statement accurately reflects the difference between an
"adverse drug reaction" and an "allergy"?
A. They are synonymous terms used interchangeably.
B. An allergy involves an immunologic response (IgE mediated); an adverse reaction is a
predictable, non-immunologic side effect.
C. An adverse reaction is always life-threatening; an allergy is always mild.
D. An allergy only happens with penicillin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is critical to distinguish true allergies (e.g., anaphylaxis, hives) from adverse drug
reactions (e.g., nausea, headache). Mislabeling a reaction as an allergy can lead to the
unnecessary use of second-line antibiotics. Adverse reactions (B) are not always mild, but they
are mediated by pharmacology, not the immune system.
Q9: A 65-year-old patient reports "feeling full" after only a few bites of food (Early Satiety) and
has unintentional weight loss. In the GI ROS, this combination is most concerning for:
A. Gastritis.
NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Comprehensive Health History & Interviewing — Questions 1-20]
Q1: During the History of Present Illness (HPI), which mnemonic is used to systematically
document the characteristics of the chief complaint?
A. AMPLE (Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events).
B. SAMPLE (Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events
leading up to).
C. OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Alleviating factors,
Radiation, Timing, Severity).
D. FAST (Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: OLDCARTS is the specific mnemonic used in advanced health assessment to
organize the chronological and qualitative details of the patient's current symptom(s). It ensures
no critical detail is missed before moving to the rest of the history. AMPLE (A) is typically used
for trauma/ER settings, and SAMPLE (B) is often used for emergency history taking. FAST (D)
is a stroke assessment tool.
Q2: A patient reports drinking a "six-pack of beer" every Friday and Saturday night. When
assessing alcohol use, which screening tool includes the questions "Have you ever felt you
should Cut down?", "Have people Annoyed you?", "Have you ever felt Guilty?", and "Have you
ever needed an Eye-opener?"?
A. PHQ-9.
B. CAGE.
C. AUDIT-C.
D. SMAST-G.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used, validated screening tool for alcohol use
disorder. A "yes" answer to two or more questions suggests a high likelihood of alcohol
dependence. PHQ-9 (A) is for depression, AUDIT-C (C) is a different alcohol screen focusing on
consumption, and SMAST-G (D) is the Short Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test-Geriatric.
Q3: When taking a medication history, which of the following is the MOST critical reason to ask
about herbal supplements and vitamins?
A. To judge the patient's compliance with prescribed meds.
B. To identify potential drug-herb interactions that could alter the efficacy or safety of prescribed
medications.
C. To determine if the patient can afford their prescriptions.
D. To assess if the patient believes in "natural" cures.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Herbal supplements can have significant pharmacological effects and interact with
prescription medications (e.g., St. John's Wort with SSRIs, Ginkgo Biloba with aspirin).
Identifying these is crucial for patient safety and clinical decision-making. Compliance (A) and
affordability (C) are important but secondary to the immediate safety risk of interactions.
Q4: In the Review of Systems (ROS), a patient reports "night sweats" and "weight loss" without
trying. In a constitutional assessment, these "B symptoms" are most suggestive of:
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Malignancy (cancer) or chronic infection (e.g., Tuberculosis).
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
D. Early onset menopause.
Correct Answer: B
,3
Rationale: Constitutional "B symptoms" (fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss) are red
flags for serious underlying pathology such as malignancy (lymphoma, solid tumors) or chronic
infections like TB. While metabolic (A) and psychiatric (C) conditions exist, they do not
typically present with this specific triad of symptoms.
Q5: Which question is part of the "functional assessment" within the Social History?
A. "Do you smoke cigarettes?"
B. "Are you currently employed?"
C. "Do you have difficulty performing your Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) like bathing or
dressing?"
D. "Do you wear a seatbelt?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Functional assessment evaluates the patient's ability to perform basic ADLs (bathing,
dressing, feeding, toileting, transferring, continence) or Instrumental ADLs (cooking, shopping).
This determines the level of independence and need for support. Smoking (A) and employment
(B) are standard social history, and seatbelts (D) are safety history.
Q6: A patient presents with chest pain. To differentiate the pain of pericarditis from myocardial
infarction, which specific question regarding "aggravating/alleviating factors" is most pertinent?
A. "Does the pain radiate to your left arm?"
B. "Is the pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin?"
C. "Does the pain worsen when you lie down and improve when you sit up and lean forward?"
D. "Is the pain associated with food intake?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pleuritic chest pain that worsens in the supine position and improves by sitting
up/leaning forward is the hallmark presentation of pericarditis (due to friction between
pericardial layers). Radiation (A) suggests MI, and relief with rest/nitro (B) suggests angina.
Food association (D) suggests GI etiology.
, 4
Q7: When documenting the Family History, which condition in a first-degree relative (parent,
sibling, child) is the strongest risk factor for the patient developing the same condition?
A. Essential Hypertension.
B. Type 1 Diabetes.
C. Hereditary Hemochromatosis (autosomal recessive, but highly penetrant in families).
D. Osteoarthritis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all options have genetic components, hereditary hemochromatosis is a single-
gene disorder where having a first-degree relative significantly increases the likelihood of the
patient carrying the gene mutation. Essential hypertension (A) and osteoarthritis (D) are
multifactorial. Type 1 diabetes (B) is autoimmune with a genetic link, but C represents a direct
Mendelian inheritance pattern often screened for in family history.
Q8: In the "Past Medical History," which statement accurately reflects the difference between an
"adverse drug reaction" and an "allergy"?
A. They are synonymous terms used interchangeably.
B. An allergy involves an immunologic response (IgE mediated); an adverse reaction is a
predictable, non-immunologic side effect.
C. An adverse reaction is always life-threatening; an allergy is always mild.
D. An allergy only happens with penicillin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is critical to distinguish true allergies (e.g., anaphylaxis, hives) from adverse drug
reactions (e.g., nausea, headache). Mislabeling a reaction as an allergy can lead to the
unnecessary use of second-line antibiotics. Adverse reactions (B) are not always mild, but they
are mediated by pharmacology, not the immune system.
Q9: A 65-year-old patient reports "feeling full" after only a few bites of food (Early Satiety) and
has unintentional weight loss. In the GI ROS, this combination is most concerning for:
A. Gastritis.
