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APEA WOMEN’S HEALTH EXAMINATION 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral breast pain, erythema,
and warmth. She is breastfeeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inflammatory breast cancer
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Mammary duct ectasia
Answer: B. Mastitis. The combination of focal breast erythema, pain,
and warmth in a lactating woman is classic for lactational mastitis, an
infection of the breast tissue typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Inflammatory breast cancer can mimic mastitis but is rare in lactating
women and does not respond to antibiotics. Fibroadenomas are
painless, mobile masses, and mammary duct ectasia usually presents
with thick, sticky nipple discharge in perimenopausal women.
2. According to the 2020 American College of Cardiology/American
Heart Association hypertension guidelines, what is the blood pressure
target for nonpregnant reproductive-age women with chronic
hypertension?
A. <150/90 mmHg
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B. <140/90 mmHg
C. <130/80 mmHg
D. <120/80 mmHg
Answer: C. <130/80 mmHg. The 2020 ACC/AHA guidelines define
hypertension as ≥130/80 mmHg and recommend a treatment target of
less than 130/80 mmHg for most adults, including reproductive-age
women, to reduce cardiovascular disease risk. The lower target of
<120/80 mmHg is not currently recommended for all patients due to
risk of adverse effects.
3. A 32-year-old woman with primary infertility undergoes
hysterosalpingography, which shows a “beaded” appearance of the
fallopian tubes. What is the most likely etiology?
A. Endometriosis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Uterine fibroids
D. Asherman syndrome
Answer: B. Pelvic inflammatory disease. The beaded appearance on
hysterosalpingography indicates salpingitis isthmica nodosa, a sequela
of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease typically caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Endometriosis causes peritubal
adhesions but not this beaded pattern. Fibroids are intramural or
submucosal uterine filling defects, and Asherman syndrome shows
intrauterine adhesions.
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4. Which human papillomavirus types are most commonly associated
with anogenital warts?
A. HPV 16 and 18
B. HPV 6 and 11
C. HPV 31 and 33
D. HPV 45 and 52
Answer: B. HPV 6 and 11. Over 90% of anogenital warts are caused by
low-risk HPV types 6 and 11. HPV 16 and 18 are high-risk types
associated with cervical, anal, and oropharyngeal cancers. Types 31, 33,
45, and 52 are also high-risk but less common.
5. A 29-year-old woman has a well-circumscribed, mobile, rubbery
breast mass on examination. Ultrasound confirms a solid mass with
smooth margins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Breast cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Phyllodes tumor
D. Invasive ductal carcinoma
Answer: B. Fibroadenoma. The classic presentation of a fibroadenoma
is a well-circumscribed, mobile, rubbery, painless mass in a young
woman. Ultrasound typically shows a solid, hypoechoic mass with
smooth margins. Cysts are anechoic with posterior acoustic
enhancement. Phyllodes tumors grow rapidly and occur in older
women. Carcinoma typically has irregular, spiculated margins.
, 4|Page
6. A 45-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular
menses for 6 months. Follicle-stimulating hormone is 45 mIU/mL. What
stage of reproductive aging does this represent?
A. Early reproductive stage
B. Late reproductive stage
C. Early menopausal transition
D. Late menopausal transition
Answer: D. Late menopausal transition. According to the STRAW+10
staging system, the late menopausal transition is characterized by
amenorrhea of at least 60 days and FSH levels ≥25 mIU/mL. Early
menopausal transition shows variable cycle lengths with a persistent 7-
day change but FSH is usually lower. The presence of vasomotor
symptoms and markedly elevated FSH supports late transition.
7. A woman with a history of hypertension and migraine with aura asks
about contraception. Which method is contraindicated?
A. Copper intrauterine device
B. Progestin-only pill
C. Combined oral contraceptive
D. Etonogestrel implant
Answer: C. Combined oral contraceptive. The presence of migraine with
aura increases the risk of ischemic stroke, and combined hormonal
contraceptives further increase this risk, making them a Category 4
contraindication (unacceptable health risk) per the CDC Medical
Eligibility Criteria. Progestin-only methods and the copper IUD are safe
(Category 1 or 2).
APEA WOMEN’S HEALTH EXAMINATION 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral breast pain, erythema,
and warmth. She is breastfeeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inflammatory breast cancer
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Mammary duct ectasia
Answer: B. Mastitis. The combination of focal breast erythema, pain,
and warmth in a lactating woman is classic for lactational mastitis, an
infection of the breast tissue typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Inflammatory breast cancer can mimic mastitis but is rare in lactating
women and does not respond to antibiotics. Fibroadenomas are
painless, mobile masses, and mammary duct ectasia usually presents
with thick, sticky nipple discharge in perimenopausal women.
2. According to the 2020 American College of Cardiology/American
Heart Association hypertension guidelines, what is the blood pressure
target for nonpregnant reproductive-age women with chronic
hypertension?
A. <150/90 mmHg
,2|Page
B. <140/90 mmHg
C. <130/80 mmHg
D. <120/80 mmHg
Answer: C. <130/80 mmHg. The 2020 ACC/AHA guidelines define
hypertension as ≥130/80 mmHg and recommend a treatment target of
less than 130/80 mmHg for most adults, including reproductive-age
women, to reduce cardiovascular disease risk. The lower target of
<120/80 mmHg is not currently recommended for all patients due to
risk of adverse effects.
3. A 32-year-old woman with primary infertility undergoes
hysterosalpingography, which shows a “beaded” appearance of the
fallopian tubes. What is the most likely etiology?
A. Endometriosis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Uterine fibroids
D. Asherman syndrome
Answer: B. Pelvic inflammatory disease. The beaded appearance on
hysterosalpingography indicates salpingitis isthmica nodosa, a sequela
of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease typically caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Endometriosis causes peritubal
adhesions but not this beaded pattern. Fibroids are intramural or
submucosal uterine filling defects, and Asherman syndrome shows
intrauterine adhesions.
,3|Page
4. Which human papillomavirus types are most commonly associated
with anogenital warts?
A. HPV 16 and 18
B. HPV 6 and 11
C. HPV 31 and 33
D. HPV 45 and 52
Answer: B. HPV 6 and 11. Over 90% of anogenital warts are caused by
low-risk HPV types 6 and 11. HPV 16 and 18 are high-risk types
associated with cervical, anal, and oropharyngeal cancers. Types 31, 33,
45, and 52 are also high-risk but less common.
5. A 29-year-old woman has a well-circumscribed, mobile, rubbery
breast mass on examination. Ultrasound confirms a solid mass with
smooth margins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Breast cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Phyllodes tumor
D. Invasive ductal carcinoma
Answer: B. Fibroadenoma. The classic presentation of a fibroadenoma
is a well-circumscribed, mobile, rubbery, painless mass in a young
woman. Ultrasound typically shows a solid, hypoechoic mass with
smooth margins. Cysts are anechoic with posterior acoustic
enhancement. Phyllodes tumors grow rapidly and occur in older
women. Carcinoma typically has irregular, spiculated margins.
, 4|Page
6. A 45-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular
menses for 6 months. Follicle-stimulating hormone is 45 mIU/mL. What
stage of reproductive aging does this represent?
A. Early reproductive stage
B. Late reproductive stage
C. Early menopausal transition
D. Late menopausal transition
Answer: D. Late menopausal transition. According to the STRAW+10
staging system, the late menopausal transition is characterized by
amenorrhea of at least 60 days and FSH levels ≥25 mIU/mL. Early
menopausal transition shows variable cycle lengths with a persistent 7-
day change but FSH is usually lower. The presence of vasomotor
symptoms and markedly elevated FSH supports late transition.
7. A woman with a history of hypertension and migraine with aura asks
about contraception. Which method is contraindicated?
A. Copper intrauterine device
B. Progestin-only pill
C. Combined oral contraceptive
D. Etonogestrel implant
Answer: C. Combined oral contraceptive. The presence of migraine with
aura increases the risk of ischemic stroke, and combined hormonal
contraceptives further increase this risk, making them a Category 4
contraindication (unacceptable health risk) per the CDC Medical
Eligibility Criteria. Progestin-only methods and the copper IUD are safe
(Category 1 or 2).
