Kaplan Integrated Exam (Forms B) Health
Assessment| NGN Questions with Correct
Answers & Rationales Questions 200+ |
Latest 2026 Update | Graded A+ |
Verified
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which finding indicates
the medication is having the desired effect?
• A) Decreased crackles in the lung bases
• B) Increased jugular venous distention
• C) Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D) Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Decreased
crackles indicate reduced pulmonary congestion, which is the desired effect. Increased JVD and weight
gain suggest worsening fluid overload. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect, not a therapeutic
goal.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has major depressive disorder and is started on phenelzine. Which
food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
• A) Broiled chicken
• B) Aged cheddar cheese
• C) White rice
• D) Apple juice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese can cause a hypertensive crisis.
Broiled chicken, white rice, and apple juice are low in tyramine and safe in moderation.
,Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. At which angle should the nurse insert the
needle?
• A) 5 to 15 degrees
• B) 45 degrees
• C) 60 degrees
• D) 90 degrees
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tuberculin skin test (intradermal injection) requires a 5- to 15-degree angle to place the
needle just under the epidermis. 45–90 degrees is for subcutaneous or intramuscular injections.
Question 4
A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing a toddler who has recently started walking and has a wide-
based, unsteady gait. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A) The child can stack two blocks
• B) The child speaks 10 words
• C) The gait has persisted for 2 months since walking began
• D) The child cries when the parent leaves the room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A wide-based gait is normal when a toddler first learns to walk, but it should resolve within a
few weeks. Persistence for 2 months may indicate a neurological or musculoskeletal issue. Speaking 10
words and stacking blocks are appropriate for a 15–18 month old. Separation anxiety is normal at this
age.
Question 5
A charge nurse is assigning clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be assigned to a
private room based on infection control needs?
• A) Client with pneumonia due to Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B) Client with Clostridioides difficile infection
• C) Client with a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli
• D) Client with cellulitis from Staphylococcus aureus
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room (or cohorting) due to spore
formation and environmental contamination. Strep pneumonia, E. coli UTI, and cellulitis do not routinely
require a private room unless specified by institutional policy.
Question 6
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
• A) “I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale.”
• B) “I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.”
• C) “I will take ibuprofen if my knees start hurting.”
• D) “I will get my blood drawn regularly as scheduled.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ibuprofen (NSAID) increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen is safer
for pain. Avoiding vitamin K-rich greens, using a soft toothbrush, and monitoring INR are correct actions.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum and reports a gush of blood and a firm fundus
deviated to the right. What should the nurse do first?
• A) Massage the fundus firmly
• B) Assist the client to void
• C) Administer oxytocin
• D) Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A displaced, firm fundus suggests a full bladder pushing the uterus up and to the side. After
voiding, the uterus typically returns to midline. Massaging a firm fundus is unnecessary and can cause
pain. Oxytocin is not the first step without atony.
Question 8
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has acute kidney injury. Which finding is
consistent with the oliguric phase?
• A) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
, • B) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 90 mL/min
• C) Urine output 30 mL over 4 hours
• D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oliguric phase of AKI is defined by urine output <400 mL/day or <0.5 mL/kg/hr. 30 mL over 4
hours is severely low. Creatinine and BUN are elevated (not low), and GFR is decreased, not normal.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which
of the following statements by the client demonstrates understanding of hypoglycemia management?
• A) “I should drink 8 oz of diet soda if my blood sugar is low.”
• B) “I will eat a granola bar and wait 10 minutes before rechecking.”
• C) “I will eat 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes.”
• D) “I should take an extra metformin tablet if I feel shaky.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 15-15 rule is standard: 15g carb (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tabs), recheck in 15 min. Diet
soda has no sugar. Granola bar has fat, slowing absorption. Metformin lowers blood sugar further and is
dangerous during hypoglycemia.
Question 10
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is 12 hours post-admission.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
• A) Insomnia and anxiety
• B) Heart rate 110/min and diaphoresis
• C) Tactile hallucinations
• D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A seizure in alcohol withdrawal is a medical emergency and can progress to status
epilepticus or delirium tremens. Insomnia, anxiety, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and hallucinations are
serious but do not carry the same immediate life-threatening risk.
Question 11
Assessment| NGN Questions with Correct
Answers & Rationales Questions 200+ |
Latest 2026 Update | Graded A+ |
Verified
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which finding indicates
the medication is having the desired effect?
• A) Decreased crackles in the lung bases
• B) Increased jugular venous distention
• C) Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D) Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Decreased
crackles indicate reduced pulmonary congestion, which is the desired effect. Increased JVD and weight
gain suggest worsening fluid overload. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect, not a therapeutic
goal.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has major depressive disorder and is started on phenelzine. Which
food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
• A) Broiled chicken
• B) Aged cheddar cheese
• C) White rice
• D) Apple juice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese can cause a hypertensive crisis.
Broiled chicken, white rice, and apple juice are low in tyramine and safe in moderation.
,Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. At which angle should the nurse insert the
needle?
• A) 5 to 15 degrees
• B) 45 degrees
• C) 60 degrees
• D) 90 degrees
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tuberculin skin test (intradermal injection) requires a 5- to 15-degree angle to place the
needle just under the epidermis. 45–90 degrees is for subcutaneous or intramuscular injections.
Question 4
A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing a toddler who has recently started walking and has a wide-
based, unsteady gait. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A) The child can stack two blocks
• B) The child speaks 10 words
• C) The gait has persisted for 2 months since walking began
• D) The child cries when the parent leaves the room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A wide-based gait is normal when a toddler first learns to walk, but it should resolve within a
few weeks. Persistence for 2 months may indicate a neurological or musculoskeletal issue. Speaking 10
words and stacking blocks are appropriate for a 15–18 month old. Separation anxiety is normal at this
age.
Question 5
A charge nurse is assigning clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be assigned to a
private room based on infection control needs?
• A) Client with pneumonia due to Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B) Client with Clostridioides difficile infection
• C) Client with a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli
• D) Client with cellulitis from Staphylococcus aureus
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room (or cohorting) due to spore
formation and environmental contamination. Strep pneumonia, E. coli UTI, and cellulitis do not routinely
require a private room unless specified by institutional policy.
Question 6
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
• A) “I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale.”
• B) “I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.”
• C) “I will take ibuprofen if my knees start hurting.”
• D) “I will get my blood drawn regularly as scheduled.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ibuprofen (NSAID) increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen is safer
for pain. Avoiding vitamin K-rich greens, using a soft toothbrush, and monitoring INR are correct actions.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum and reports a gush of blood and a firm fundus
deviated to the right. What should the nurse do first?
• A) Massage the fundus firmly
• B) Assist the client to void
• C) Administer oxytocin
• D) Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A displaced, firm fundus suggests a full bladder pushing the uterus up and to the side. After
voiding, the uterus typically returns to midline. Massaging a firm fundus is unnecessary and can cause
pain. Oxytocin is not the first step without atony.
Question 8
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has acute kidney injury. Which finding is
consistent with the oliguric phase?
• A) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
, • B) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 90 mL/min
• C) Urine output 30 mL over 4 hours
• D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oliguric phase of AKI is defined by urine output <400 mL/day or <0.5 mL/kg/hr. 30 mL over 4
hours is severely low. Creatinine and BUN are elevated (not low), and GFR is decreased, not normal.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which
of the following statements by the client demonstrates understanding of hypoglycemia management?
• A) “I should drink 8 oz of diet soda if my blood sugar is low.”
• B) “I will eat a granola bar and wait 10 minutes before rechecking.”
• C) “I will eat 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes.”
• D) “I should take an extra metformin tablet if I feel shaky.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 15-15 rule is standard: 15g carb (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tabs), recheck in 15 min. Diet
soda has no sugar. Granola bar has fat, slowing absorption. Metformin lowers blood sugar further and is
dangerous during hypoglycemia.
Question 10
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is 12 hours post-admission.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
• A) Insomnia and anxiety
• B) Heart rate 110/min and diaphoresis
• C) Tactile hallucinations
• D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A seizure in alcohol withdrawal is a medical emergency and can progress to status
epilepticus or delirium tremens. Insomnia, anxiety, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and hallucinations are
serious but do not carry the same immediate life-threatening risk.
Question 11
