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Emory Wound Exam 2 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL
COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A patient presents with a full-thickness wound exposing
subcutaneous fat on the sacrum. The wound bed is 80% slough and
20% granulation. According to the principles of wound bed preparation,
what is the primary initial intervention?
A. Apply a silver-impregnated foam dressing
B. Perform sharp debridement to remove non-viable tissue
C. Obtain a wound culture and begin empiric antibiotics
D. Begin negative pressure wound therapy at 125 mmHg
Answer: B. The presence of significant slough acts as a physical barrier
to granulation and re-epithelialization. Sharp debridement is required
to convert a chronic wound into an acute wound environment,
removing the bioburden and allowing cellular migration.
2. During the inflammatory phase of wound healing, which cell type is
the first to migrate into the wound bed to control bacterial
contamination?
A. Fibroblast
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
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D. Lymphocyte
Answer: C. Neutrophils are the first responders, arriving within minutes
to hours post-injury. Their primary role is phagocytosis of bacteria and
debris. Macrophages arrive later (48-72 hours) and are essential for
transitioning to the proliferative phase.
3. A wound is measured with a depth of 4 cm, undermining from 12
o’clock to 3 o’clock, and a sinus tract at 6 o'clock. How should the
clinician best document the undermining?
A. Depth 4 cm with pocketing
B. 4 cm depth, undermining 12-3 o’clock, sinus tract 6 o’clock
C. Stage IV pressure injury with multidirectional tunneling
D. Wound contains dead space requiring packing
Answer: B. Precise documentation using the clock method (with the
patient’s head at 12 o’clock) allows for objective tracking of wound
dimensions. Distinguishing undermining (tissue destruction under intact
skin) from a sinus tract (narrow channel extending to a specific area) is
clinically relevant.
4. Which of the following wound exudate characteristics is most
indicative of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A. Serosanguinous drainage with a sweet odor
B. Thick, purulent yellow drainage
C. Green-blue drainage with a fruity odor
D. Thin, pink watery drainage
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Answer: C. Pseudomonas is associated with pyocyanin and pyoverdin
pigments, producing a distinctive green-blue color and often a grapelike
or fruity odor. Visual cues for specific organisms can guide empiric
topical therapy, although culture confirms.
5. A diabetic patient has a plantar ulcer with a callused rim and no
visible granulation tissue. What is the crucial first step in assessment?
A. Transcutaneous oxygen measurement
B. Monofilament testing
C. Sharp debridement of the callus to visualize the wound base
D. Application of total contact cast
Answer: C. The callus acts as a foreign body and prevents epithelial
migration. The true depth of a neuropathic ulcer cannot be assessed
until the hyperkeratotic rim is removed. Debridement often reveals a
wound that is significantly deeper and wider than initially apparent.
6. A hydrogel dressing is primarily indicated for which wound
characteristic?
A. Highly exudative wounds requiring absorption
B. Dry, necrotic eschar requiring autolytic debridement
C. Infected wounds requiring antimicrobial action
D. Bleeding wounds requiring hemostatic control
Answer: B. Hydrogels donate moisture to the wound bed, rehydrating
dry eschar and facilitating autolytic debridement by endogenous
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enzymes. They are contraindicated in heavily exudating wounds due to
the risk of maceration.
7. What pressure reduction is theoretically required at the capillary
interface to reduce the risk of pressure injury in healthy adults?
A. Below 45 mmHg
B. Below 32 mmHg
C. Below 12 mmHg
D. Below 8 mmHg
Answer: B. Capillary closing pressure averages around 32 mmHg.
Support surfaces aim to reduce interface pressure below this threshold
to maintain microcirculatory perfusion, preventing ischemia-
reperfusion injury.
8. A wound contraction rate of 20% per week is observed in a full-
thickness wound left to heal by secondary intention. What is the
primary cell responsible for this contraction?
A. Keratinocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Myofibroblast
D. Adipocyte
Answer: C. Myofibroblasts, containing alpha-smooth muscle actin, exert
contractile forces that pull wound edges together. This process is
distinct from re-epithelialization, which is driven by keratinocytes.
Emory Wound Exam 2 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL
COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A patient presents with a full-thickness wound exposing
subcutaneous fat on the sacrum. The wound bed is 80% slough and
20% granulation. According to the principles of wound bed preparation,
what is the primary initial intervention?
A. Apply a silver-impregnated foam dressing
B. Perform sharp debridement to remove non-viable tissue
C. Obtain a wound culture and begin empiric antibiotics
D. Begin negative pressure wound therapy at 125 mmHg
Answer: B. The presence of significant slough acts as a physical barrier
to granulation and re-epithelialization. Sharp debridement is required
to convert a chronic wound into an acute wound environment,
removing the bioburden and allowing cellular migration.
2. During the inflammatory phase of wound healing, which cell type is
the first to migrate into the wound bed to control bacterial
contamination?
A. Fibroblast
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
,2|Page
D. Lymphocyte
Answer: C. Neutrophils are the first responders, arriving within minutes
to hours post-injury. Their primary role is phagocytosis of bacteria and
debris. Macrophages arrive later (48-72 hours) and are essential for
transitioning to the proliferative phase.
3. A wound is measured with a depth of 4 cm, undermining from 12
o’clock to 3 o’clock, and a sinus tract at 6 o'clock. How should the
clinician best document the undermining?
A. Depth 4 cm with pocketing
B. 4 cm depth, undermining 12-3 o’clock, sinus tract 6 o’clock
C. Stage IV pressure injury with multidirectional tunneling
D. Wound contains dead space requiring packing
Answer: B. Precise documentation using the clock method (with the
patient’s head at 12 o’clock) allows for objective tracking of wound
dimensions. Distinguishing undermining (tissue destruction under intact
skin) from a sinus tract (narrow channel extending to a specific area) is
clinically relevant.
4. Which of the following wound exudate characteristics is most
indicative of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A. Serosanguinous drainage with a sweet odor
B. Thick, purulent yellow drainage
C. Green-blue drainage with a fruity odor
D. Thin, pink watery drainage
,3|Page
Answer: C. Pseudomonas is associated with pyocyanin and pyoverdin
pigments, producing a distinctive green-blue color and often a grapelike
or fruity odor. Visual cues for specific organisms can guide empiric
topical therapy, although culture confirms.
5. A diabetic patient has a plantar ulcer with a callused rim and no
visible granulation tissue. What is the crucial first step in assessment?
A. Transcutaneous oxygen measurement
B. Monofilament testing
C. Sharp debridement of the callus to visualize the wound base
D. Application of total contact cast
Answer: C. The callus acts as a foreign body and prevents epithelial
migration. The true depth of a neuropathic ulcer cannot be assessed
until the hyperkeratotic rim is removed. Debridement often reveals a
wound that is significantly deeper and wider than initially apparent.
6. A hydrogel dressing is primarily indicated for which wound
characteristic?
A. Highly exudative wounds requiring absorption
B. Dry, necrotic eschar requiring autolytic debridement
C. Infected wounds requiring antimicrobial action
D. Bleeding wounds requiring hemostatic control
Answer: B. Hydrogels donate moisture to the wound bed, rehydrating
dry eschar and facilitating autolytic debridement by endogenous
, 4|Page
enzymes. They are contraindicated in heavily exudating wounds due to
the risk of maceration.
7. What pressure reduction is theoretically required at the capillary
interface to reduce the risk of pressure injury in healthy adults?
A. Below 45 mmHg
B. Below 32 mmHg
C. Below 12 mmHg
D. Below 8 mmHg
Answer: B. Capillary closing pressure averages around 32 mmHg.
Support surfaces aim to reduce interface pressure below this threshold
to maintain microcirculatory perfusion, preventing ischemia-
reperfusion injury.
8. A wound contraction rate of 20% per week is observed in a full-
thickness wound left to heal by secondary intention. What is the
primary cell responsible for this contraction?
A. Keratinocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Myofibroblast
D. Adipocyte
Answer: C. Myofibroblasts, containing alpha-smooth muscle actin, exert
contractile forces that pull wound edges together. This process is
distinct from re-epithelialization, which is driven by keratinocytes.
