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HESI PN exit EXAM 2026 BANK MOST EXAM 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. The practical nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure
who is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV push. Which assessment finding
requires the most immediate action?
A. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
B. Presence of S3 heart sound
C. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Answer: C. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
Explanation: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant
potassium excretion. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates
hypokalemia, which places the client at high risk for life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in the context of heart failure and
digoxin use. While an S3 heart sound signals fluid overload and a urine
output of 30 mL/hr may indicate reduced renal perfusion, the
immediate threat of a lethal arrhythmia from low potassium takes
precedence. A blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg is an expected
therapeutic effect of diuresis.
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2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and dizzy.
The practical nurse observes diaphoresis and confusion. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose reading
C. Give 4 ounces of orange juice orally
D. Notify the registered nurse immediately
Answer: B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose reading
Explanation: The client’s presentation suggests hypoglycemia. The
priority action is to validate the suspicion with a rapid blood glucose
measurement before intervening. If the client is conscious and able to
swallow, oral rapid-acting carbohydrates such as orange juice are
appropriate but only after confirming the glucose level. Glucagon is
reserved for severe hypoglycemia with loss of consciousness.
Assessment precedes implementation of treatment and notification.
3. The practical nurse is monitoring a client 24 hours post-
appendectomy. The client reports a sudden popping sensation at the
incision site during a coughing episode. The nurse suspects wound
dehiscence. What is the initial intervention?
A. Apply a sterile saline-moistened dressing
B. Instruct the client to splint the wound
C. Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees bent
D. Prepare the client for immediate surgery
Answer: C. Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees bent
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Explanation: Suspected wound dehiscence requires immediate
measures to reduce tension on the abdominal incision. Positioning the
client supine or in low Fowler’s position with the knees flexed relaxes
the abdominal muscles. The nurse should then cover the wound with
sterile saline dressings and notify the surgeon. Splinting is preventive,
not reactive. Immediate surgery is needed for evisceration involving
protruding organs, but the primary first step is to prevent progression.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering which medication?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Regular insulin and dextrose
D. Sevelamer hydrochloride
Answer: B. Calcium gluconate
Explanation: A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L constitutes severe
hyperkalemia with imminent risk of cardiac arrest due to myocardial
irritability. Calcium gluconate is the first-line emergent treatment
because it antagonizes the cardiotoxic effects of potassium on the cell
membrane without lowering serum levels. While insulin and dextrose
or sodium bicarbonate subsequently shift potassium intracellularly,
stabilizing the myocardium is the immediate priority. Sevelamer is a
phosphate binder irrelevant in acute hyperkalemia.
5. The practical nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed
warfarin. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of
dietary restrictions?
HESI PN exit EXAM 2026 BANK MOST EXAM 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. The practical nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure
who is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV push. Which assessment finding
requires the most immediate action?
A. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
B. Presence of S3 heart sound
C. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Answer: C. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
Explanation: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant
potassium excretion. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates
hypokalemia, which places the client at high risk for life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in the context of heart failure and
digoxin use. While an S3 heart sound signals fluid overload and a urine
output of 30 mL/hr may indicate reduced renal perfusion, the
immediate threat of a lethal arrhythmia from low potassium takes
precedence. A blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg is an expected
therapeutic effect of diuresis.
,2|Page
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and dizzy.
The practical nurse observes diaphoresis and confusion. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose reading
C. Give 4 ounces of orange juice orally
D. Notify the registered nurse immediately
Answer: B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose reading
Explanation: The client’s presentation suggests hypoglycemia. The
priority action is to validate the suspicion with a rapid blood glucose
measurement before intervening. If the client is conscious and able to
swallow, oral rapid-acting carbohydrates such as orange juice are
appropriate but only after confirming the glucose level. Glucagon is
reserved for severe hypoglycemia with loss of consciousness.
Assessment precedes implementation of treatment and notification.
3. The practical nurse is monitoring a client 24 hours post-
appendectomy. The client reports a sudden popping sensation at the
incision site during a coughing episode. The nurse suspects wound
dehiscence. What is the initial intervention?
A. Apply a sterile saline-moistened dressing
B. Instruct the client to splint the wound
C. Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees bent
D. Prepare the client for immediate surgery
Answer: C. Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees bent
, 3|Page
Explanation: Suspected wound dehiscence requires immediate
measures to reduce tension on the abdominal incision. Positioning the
client supine or in low Fowler’s position with the knees flexed relaxes
the abdominal muscles. The nurse should then cover the wound with
sterile saline dressings and notify the surgeon. Splinting is preventive,
not reactive. Immediate surgery is needed for evisceration involving
protruding organs, but the primary first step is to prevent progression.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering which medication?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Regular insulin and dextrose
D. Sevelamer hydrochloride
Answer: B. Calcium gluconate
Explanation: A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L constitutes severe
hyperkalemia with imminent risk of cardiac arrest due to myocardial
irritability. Calcium gluconate is the first-line emergent treatment
because it antagonizes the cardiotoxic effects of potassium on the cell
membrane without lowering serum levels. While insulin and dextrose
or sodium bicarbonate subsequently shift potassium intracellularly,
stabilizing the myocardium is the immediate priority. Sevelamer is a
phosphate binder irrelevant in acute hyperkalemia.
5. The practical nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed
warfarin. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of
dietary restrictions?
