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NSG 3850 Exam 4 Galen College Of Nursing Actual Exam Questions And Answers Practice Questions with Solutions Newest | Already Graded A+

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NSG 3850 Exam 4 Galen College Of Nursing Actual Exam Questions And Answers Practice Questions with Solutions Newest | Already Graded A+

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NSG 3850
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NSG 3850

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NSG 3850 Exam 4 Galen College Of Nursing Actual Exam Questions And Answers Practice
Questions with Solutions Newest | Already Graded A+

Question 1
A patient presents with jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. To determine the specific viral
etiology of the patient's hepatitis, which of the following is required?
A) Liver function tests (ALT/AST) only
B) Abdominal Ultrasound
C) Serologic testing
D) Complete Blood Count (CBC)
E) Prothrombin Time (PT)
Correct Answer: C) Serologic testing
Rationale: While liver enzymes (ALT/AST) indicate that liver injury is occurring, they do
not identify the cause. Serologic testing is necessary to detect specific antigens and
antibodies (e.g., Anti-HAV, HBsAg, Anti-HCV) to differentiate between the various types of
hepatitis viruses.

Question 2
Which types of hepatitis are currently preventable through the administration of a routine
vaccine?
A) Hepatitis A and C
B) Hepatitis B and C
C) Hepatitis A and B
D) Hepatitis C and E
E) Hepatitis B and E
Correct Answer: C) Hepatitis A and B
Rationale: Vaccines are available and routinely recommended for Hepatitis A and Hepatitis
B. There is currently no vaccine for Hepatitis C. Hepatitis E vaccines are produced in some
countries (like China) but are not widely available or used in the United States.

Question 3
In the study of viral hepatitis, which types of genetic material are known to compose these
various viruses?
A) Only double-stranded DNA
B) Only single-stranded RNA
C) Both DNA and RNA can be present depending on the virus type
D) Only mitochondrial DNA
E) Prions
Correct Answer: C) Both DNA and RNA can be present depending on the virus type
Rationale: Hepatitis B is a DNA virus (Hepadnaviridae family), while Hepatitis A, C, D, and
E are all RNA viruses. Understanding the genetic makeup is critical for understanding how
the virus replicates and how antiviral therapies are designed.

, 2



Question 4
A patient’s lab report indicates a positive Anti-HCV test. How should the nurse interpret this
finding?
A) The patient is currently immune to Hepatitis C due to vaccination.
B) The patient has developed antibodies against the Hepatitis C virus.
C) The patient has an acute Hepatitis A infection.
D) The patient is a carrier of Hepatitis B.
E) The patient is in the "window period" of HIV.
Correct Answer: B) Antibodies
Rationale: A positive Anti-HCV test indicates that the individual has been exposed to the
Hepatitis C virus and has developed antibodies. Unlike Hep A or B, the presence of
antibodies does not necessarily mean the patient is immune; it often indicates chronic
infection and requires further testing for HCV-RNA.

Question 5
In patients with chronic liver disease, portal hypertension significantly increases the risk for
which of the following abdominal complications?
A) Cholelithiasis
B) Small bowel obstruction
C) Ascites
D) Appendicitis
E) Pyloric stenosis
Correct Answer: C) Ascites
Rationale: Portal hypertension increases the hydrostatic pressure within the peritoneal
capillaries. This, combined with low albumin levels (decreased oncotic pressure) and
activation of the RAAS system, causes fluid to leak into the abdominal cavity, a condition
known as ascites.
Question 6
Which of the following patient populations is at the highest risk for the development of
cholelithiasis (gallstones)?
A) High spinal cord injuries and rapid weight loss
B) Chronic smokers and athletes
C) Patients with hyperthyroidism
D) Children with Type 1 Diabetes
E) Individuals with low cholesterol levels
Correct Answer: A) High spinal cord injuries, rapid weight loss/fasting, obesity, and
pregnancy.
Rationale: Risk factors for gallstones include the "Four Fs" (Female, Fat, Fertile, Forty).
Additionally, rapid weight loss/fasting and high spinal cord injuries cause gallbladder stasis

, 3



(lack of gallbladder contraction), which allows bile to become supersaturated with
cholesterol and form crystals.

Question 7
A patient is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following sets of clinical
manifestations should the nurse expect to assess?
A) Bradycardia, cold intolerance, and weight gain
B) Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and weight loss
C) Hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hypokalemia
D) Constipation, slow speech, and depression
E) Moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae
Correct Answer: B) Heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, goiter, irritability, diarrhea
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism involves an overproduction of T3 and T4, which accelerates the
body's metabolic rate. This leads to symptoms of "speeding up," such as a rapid heart rate
(tachycardia), increased body temperature (heat intolerance), and rapid weight loss despite
increased appetite.

Question 8
Which clinical findings are hallmark manifestations of hypothyroidism?
A) Diarrhea and tremors
B) Exophthalmos and clubbed fingers
C) Cold intolerance, weight gain, and bradycardia
D) Hyperglycemia and hypernatremia
E) Rapid speech and insomnia
Correct Answer: C) Fatigue, muscle cramps, anxiety, depression, goiter, slow speech,
constipation, weight gain, bradycardia, cold intolerance
Rationale: Hypothyroidism is a state of metabolic slowing. Common signs include a slow
heart rate (bradycardia), sensitivity to cold, weight gain due to a slow BMR, and slowed
mental and physical processes (slow speech/constipation).
Question 9
When reviewing lab values for a patient with Cushing Disease, which of the following results are
expected?
A) Hypoglycemia, low cortisol, and hyperkalemia
B) Hyperglycemia, elevated cortisol, and hypokalemia
C) Low sodium and high calcium
D) Elevated TSH and low T4
E) Low ACTH and high insulin
Correct Answer: B) Hyperglycemia, elevated cortisol, and hypokalemia
Rationale: Cushing Disease involves an excess of cortisol. Cortisol is a "stress hormone"

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