NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
NR 224 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
Comprehensive Final Examination | 2026
250 Questions with Verified Answers and Rationales | Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Section Description Questions Marks Total
I Multiple Choice 100 2 200
II True / False 50 2 100
III Short Answer 50 2 100
IV Matching 50 2 100
— — — TOTAL 500
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
1. This comprehensive examination consists of four sections totaling 250 questions (500 marks).
2. Select the BEST answer for each multiple-choice and matching question.
3. For True/False questions, indicate whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE.
4. For Short Answer questions, provide concise, clinically accurate responses.
5. All correct answers are provided in bold cyan blue with detailed rationales in the Answer Key.
6. Time Allowed: 4 Hours | Passing Score: 75% (375/500 marks) | NCLEX-Aligned Content
SECTION I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (200 Marks)
Select the best answer. Each question is worth 2 marks.
1. What is the first step in the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Assessment B. Diagnosis
C. Planning D. Implementation
2. According to the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM), what is the first layer? (2
marks)
A. Recognize Cues B. Analyze Cues
C. Generate Solutions D. Take Action
Page 1 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
3. How does a nursing diagnosis differ from a medical diagnosis? (2 marks)
A. Nursing diagnosis focuses on the human response to health conditions
B. Nursing diagnosis identifies the disease pathology
C. Nursing diagnosis is written by the physician
D. Nursing diagnosis requires diagnostic testing
4. What is the primary purpose of the evaluation step in the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Determine if goals and expected outcomes have been met
B. Collect additional patient data
C. Identify new nursing diagnoses
D. Implement new interventions
5. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention? (2 marks)
A. Immunization B. Physical therapy after stroke
C. Chemotherapy for cancer D. Wound care for a pressure injury
6. When using the ABC priority-setting framework, which takes the highest priority? (2 marks)
A. Airway B. Breathing
C. Circulation D. Disability
7. Which criteria must a properly written goal statement include? (2 marks)
A. Patient-centered, measurable, and time-bound
B. Physician-approved, cost-effective, and evidence-based
C. Nurse-driven, flexible, and open-ended
D. Diagnosis-specific, medical, and pharmacological
8. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which category of needs takes the highest priority? (2 marks)
A. Physiological needs B. Safety and security
C. Love and belonging D. Self-actualization
9. Which of the following is included in the implementation step of the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Interventions and nursing actions B. Setting patient goals
C. Identifying nursing diagnoses D. Evaluating patient outcomes
10. Which of the following is an example of subjective data? (2 marks)
A. "I feel nauseous." B. Blood pressure 150/90 mmHg
C. Wound measuring 4 cm in diameter D. Heart rate 110 bpm
11. Which of the following is an example of objective data? (2 marks)
A. Temperature 38.5°C B. "My chest hurts"
C. "I am feeling anxious today" D. Patient reports tingling in fingers
Page 2 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
12. What does backward chaining in clinical assessment refer to? (2 marks)
A. Beginning with evaluation and working backward through the nursing process
B. Starting data collection from the most recent assessment
C. Delegating tasks in reverse order of priority
D. Documenting care in reverse chronological order
13. The planning step of the nursing process involves which of the following? (2 marks)
A. Setting goals and selecting nursing interventions
B. Implementing prescribed treatments
C. Collecting comprehensive patient data
D. Measuring patient outcomes
14. Which classification system standardizes the language for nursing interventions? (2 marks)
A. NIC (Nursing Interventions Classification)
B. NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International)
C. NOC (Nursing Outcomes Classification)
D. ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases)
15. In the NCSBN CJMM, evaluating outcomes involves doing what? (2 marks)
A. Comparing the patient's actual response with the expected outcome
B. Generating new nursing diagnoses
C. Collecting additional assessment data
D. Implementing alternative interventions
16. What is the normal adult temperature range? (2 marks)
A. 36.5–37.5°C (97.7–99.5°F) B. 35.0–36.0°C (95.0–96.8°F)
C. 37.5–38.5°C (99.5–101.3°F) D. 38.0–39.5°C (100.4–103.1°F)
17. What is the correct sequence for abdominal assessment? (2 marks)
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
D. Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation
18. What is the normal adult resting heart rate range? (2 marks)
A. 60–100 bpm B. 40–60 bpm
C. 100–120 bpm D. 80–140 bpm
19. According to the AHA 2017 guidelines, what blood pressure values classify as Stage 1 hypertension? (2
marks)
A. 130–139/80–89 mmHg B. ≥120/80 mmHg
C. 140–159/90–99 mmHg D. ≥160/100 mmHg
Page 3 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
20. What does the PQRST pain assessment framework stand for? (2 marks)
A. Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing
B. Palliation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Timing
C. Position, Quality, Region, Site, Type
D. Provocation, Quality, Rest, Severity, Treatment
21. What is the normal adult respiratory rate? (2 marks)
A. 12–20 breaths/min B. 8–12 breaths/min
C. 20–24 breaths/min D. 24–30 breaths/min
22. What is the normal SpO2 range on room air? (2 marks)
A. 95–100% B. 88–94%
C. 80–87% D. 70–79%
23. The FLACC pain scale is used for which patient population? (2 marks)
A. Preverbal children ages 2 months to 7 years B. Cognitively impaired older adults
C. Intubated patients in the ICU D. Verbal school-age children ages 8–12
24. Which pain assessment tool is recommended for cognitively impaired older adults with advanced
dementia? (2 marks)
A. PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) B. FLACC scale
C. Wong-Baker FACES scale D. Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
25. How is pulse pressure calculated? (2 marks)
A. Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
C. Diastolic pressure divided by systolic pressure
D. Heart rate multiplied by stroke volume
26. What are the criteria for orthostatic (postural) hypotension? (2 marks)
A. Drop ≥20 mmHg systolic OR ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing
B. Drop ≥10 mmHg systolic OR ≥5 mmHg diastolic within 1 minute of standing
C. BP below 90/60 mmHg when lying down
D. Increase in heart rate by 30 bpm upon standing
27. Where is the apical pulse auscultated? (2 marks)
A. 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
B. 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
C. 5th intercostal space, right midclavicular line
D. 3rd intercostal space, left sternal border
Page 4 of 69
NR 224 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
Comprehensive Final Examination | 2026
250 Questions with Verified Answers and Rationales | Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Section Description Questions Marks Total
I Multiple Choice 100 2 200
II True / False 50 2 100
III Short Answer 50 2 100
IV Matching 50 2 100
— — — TOTAL 500
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
1. This comprehensive examination consists of four sections totaling 250 questions (500 marks).
2. Select the BEST answer for each multiple-choice and matching question.
3. For True/False questions, indicate whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE.
4. For Short Answer questions, provide concise, clinically accurate responses.
5. All correct answers are provided in bold cyan blue with detailed rationales in the Answer Key.
6. Time Allowed: 4 Hours | Passing Score: 75% (375/500 marks) | NCLEX-Aligned Content
SECTION I: MULTIPLE CHOICE (200 Marks)
Select the best answer. Each question is worth 2 marks.
1. What is the first step in the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Assessment B. Diagnosis
C. Planning D. Implementation
2. According to the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM), what is the first layer? (2
marks)
A. Recognize Cues B. Analyze Cues
C. Generate Solutions D. Take Action
Page 1 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
3. How does a nursing diagnosis differ from a medical diagnosis? (2 marks)
A. Nursing diagnosis focuses on the human response to health conditions
B. Nursing diagnosis identifies the disease pathology
C. Nursing diagnosis is written by the physician
D. Nursing diagnosis requires diagnostic testing
4. What is the primary purpose of the evaluation step in the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Determine if goals and expected outcomes have been met
B. Collect additional patient data
C. Identify new nursing diagnoses
D. Implement new interventions
5. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention? (2 marks)
A. Immunization B. Physical therapy after stroke
C. Chemotherapy for cancer D. Wound care for a pressure injury
6. When using the ABC priority-setting framework, which takes the highest priority? (2 marks)
A. Airway B. Breathing
C. Circulation D. Disability
7. Which criteria must a properly written goal statement include? (2 marks)
A. Patient-centered, measurable, and time-bound
B. Physician-approved, cost-effective, and evidence-based
C. Nurse-driven, flexible, and open-ended
D. Diagnosis-specific, medical, and pharmacological
8. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which category of needs takes the highest priority? (2 marks)
A. Physiological needs B. Safety and security
C. Love and belonging D. Self-actualization
9. Which of the following is included in the implementation step of the nursing process? (2 marks)
A. Interventions and nursing actions B. Setting patient goals
C. Identifying nursing diagnoses D. Evaluating patient outcomes
10. Which of the following is an example of subjective data? (2 marks)
A. "I feel nauseous." B. Blood pressure 150/90 mmHg
C. Wound measuring 4 cm in diameter D. Heart rate 110 bpm
11. Which of the following is an example of objective data? (2 marks)
A. Temperature 38.5°C B. "My chest hurts"
C. "I am feeling anxious today" D. Patient reports tingling in fingers
Page 2 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
12. What does backward chaining in clinical assessment refer to? (2 marks)
A. Beginning with evaluation and working backward through the nursing process
B. Starting data collection from the most recent assessment
C. Delegating tasks in reverse order of priority
D. Documenting care in reverse chronological order
13. The planning step of the nursing process involves which of the following? (2 marks)
A. Setting goals and selecting nursing interventions
B. Implementing prescribed treatments
C. Collecting comprehensive patient data
D. Measuring patient outcomes
14. Which classification system standardizes the language for nursing interventions? (2 marks)
A. NIC (Nursing Interventions Classification)
B. NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International)
C. NOC (Nursing Outcomes Classification)
D. ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases)
15. In the NCSBN CJMM, evaluating outcomes involves doing what? (2 marks)
A. Comparing the patient's actual response with the expected outcome
B. Generating new nursing diagnoses
C. Collecting additional assessment data
D. Implementing alternative interventions
16. What is the normal adult temperature range? (2 marks)
A. 36.5–37.5°C (97.7–99.5°F) B. 35.0–36.0°C (95.0–96.8°F)
C. 37.5–38.5°C (99.5–101.3°F) D. 38.0–39.5°C (100.4–103.1°F)
17. What is the correct sequence for abdominal assessment? (2 marks)
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
D. Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation
18. What is the normal adult resting heart rate range? (2 marks)
A. 60–100 bpm B. 40–60 bpm
C. 100–120 bpm D. 80–140 bpm
19. According to the AHA 2017 guidelines, what blood pressure values classify as Stage 1 hypertension? (2
marks)
A. 130–139/80–89 mmHg B. ≥120/80 mmHg
C. 140–159/90–99 mmHg D. ≥160/100 mmHg
Page 3 of 69
, NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam 2026 | 250 Questions | Comprehensive Test Bank
20. What does the PQRST pain assessment framework stand for? (2 marks)
A. Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing
B. Palliation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Timing
C. Position, Quality, Region, Site, Type
D. Provocation, Quality, Rest, Severity, Treatment
21. What is the normal adult respiratory rate? (2 marks)
A. 12–20 breaths/min B. 8–12 breaths/min
C. 20–24 breaths/min D. 24–30 breaths/min
22. What is the normal SpO2 range on room air? (2 marks)
A. 95–100% B. 88–94%
C. 80–87% D. 70–79%
23. The FLACC pain scale is used for which patient population? (2 marks)
A. Preverbal children ages 2 months to 7 years B. Cognitively impaired older adults
C. Intubated patients in the ICU D. Verbal school-age children ages 8–12
24. Which pain assessment tool is recommended for cognitively impaired older adults with advanced
dementia? (2 marks)
A. PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) B. FLACC scale
C. Wong-Baker FACES scale D. Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
25. How is pulse pressure calculated? (2 marks)
A. Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
C. Diastolic pressure divided by systolic pressure
D. Heart rate multiplied by stroke volume
26. What are the criteria for orthostatic (postural) hypotension? (2 marks)
A. Drop ≥20 mmHg systolic OR ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing
B. Drop ≥10 mmHg systolic OR ≥5 mmHg diastolic within 1 minute of standing
C. BP below 90/60 mmHg when lying down
D. Increase in heart rate by 30 bpm upon standing
27. Where is the apical pulse auscultated? (2 marks)
A. 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
B. 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
C. 5th intercostal space, right midclavicular line
D. 3rd intercostal space, left sternal border
Page 4 of 69
