NUR2474 | NUR2474 Pharmacology for
Professional Nursing Exam 2 v2 | Questions with
Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each
Question | Rasmussen
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take before administration?
A. Measure the apical pulse for 1 full minute
B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
C. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate
D. Assess the patient’s temperature
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must measure the
apical pulse for one full minute to ensure it is within safe limits. If the heart rate is
less than 60 beats per minute in an adult, the medication should be withheld and the
provider notified. This is a critical safety step because digoxin slows the heart rate
and can cause dangerous bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed furosemide for the treatment of peripheral edema. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Hypernatremia
,B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of
potassium along with water and sodium. Patients taking this medication are at high
risk for developing hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse
should encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods or monitor the need for
potassium supplements.
3. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin.
What instruction should be included regarding its use during an anginal attack?
A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to 2 doses
B. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 5 minutes
D. Exercise immediately after taking the tablet to improve blood flow
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue to
allow for rapid absorption into the bloodstream. If chest pain occurs, the patient
,should take one dose and wait 5 minutes; if pain persists, they should call
emergency services. This route avoids the first-pass metabolism of the liver,
providing quick relief for cardiac ischemia.
4. Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors often cause a persistent, dry, nonproductive
cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. This side effect is a
common reason why patients might be switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor
Blocker (ARB). Nurses should educate patients that this cough is a known side effect
and may require a change in therapy.
5. A patient is prescribed spironolactone for hypertension. What dietary instruction is
most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Increase intake of bananas and oranges
B. Drink at least 3 liters of water per day
, C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium
D. Consume a high-protein diet
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause
hyperkalemia. Salt substitutes often contain potassium chloride instead of sodium
chloride, which increases the risk of toxic potassium levels. The nurse must teach
the patient to avoid these substitutes and limit high-potassium foods.
6. A patient is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor to adjust the dosage?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Prothrombin time (PT)
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the
effectiveness of unfractionated heparin. Therapeutic levels are generally 1.5 to 2.5
times the control value. Frequent monitoring is necessary to ensure the patient is
adequately anticoagulated without being at excessive risk for hemorrhage.
Professional Nursing Exam 2 v2 | Questions with
Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each
Question | Rasmussen
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take before administration?
A. Measure the apical pulse for 1 full minute
B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
C. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate
D. Assess the patient’s temperature
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must measure the
apical pulse for one full minute to ensure it is within safe limits. If the heart rate is
less than 60 beats per minute in an adult, the medication should be withheld and the
provider notified. This is a critical safety step because digoxin slows the heart rate
and can cause dangerous bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed furosemide for the treatment of peripheral edema. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Hypernatremia
,B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of
potassium along with water and sodium. Patients taking this medication are at high
risk for developing hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse
should encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods or monitor the need for
potassium supplements.
3. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin.
What instruction should be included regarding its use during an anginal attack?
A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to 2 doses
B. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 5 minutes
D. Exercise immediately after taking the tablet to improve blood flow
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue to
allow for rapid absorption into the bloodstream. If chest pain occurs, the patient
,should take one dose and wait 5 minutes; if pain persists, they should call
emergency services. This route avoids the first-pass metabolism of the liver,
providing quick relief for cardiac ischemia.
4. Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors often cause a persistent, dry, nonproductive
cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. This side effect is a
common reason why patients might be switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor
Blocker (ARB). Nurses should educate patients that this cough is a known side effect
and may require a change in therapy.
5. A patient is prescribed spironolactone for hypertension. What dietary instruction is
most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Increase intake of bananas and oranges
B. Drink at least 3 liters of water per day
, C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium
D. Consume a high-protein diet
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause
hyperkalemia. Salt substitutes often contain potassium chloride instead of sodium
chloride, which increases the risk of toxic potassium levels. The nurse must teach
the patient to avoid these substitutes and limit high-potassium foods.
6. A patient is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor to adjust the dosage?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Prothrombin time (PT)
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the
effectiveness of unfractionated heparin. Therapeutic levels are generally 1.5 to 2.5
times the control value. Frequent monitoring is necessary to ensure the patient is
adequately anticoagulated without being at excessive risk for hemorrhage.
