CHAMBERLAIN NURSE
PRACTITIONER EXAM PREP
FULL Q&A||Questions And Answers
With Rationales/Graded A+/2026
Update/100% Correct /Instant
Download
Topic Test: Advanced Clinical Practice & Professional Issues
Latest 2026 Edition | 80+ Questions with Rationales
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–12)
1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension has a BP of 148/92 mmHg in clinic.
Home readings average 146/90. He has no diabetes or CKD. According to
ACC/AHA 2023 updated guidelines, which is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
A. Lifestyle modification only, recheck in 6 months
B. Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
C. Lifestyle modification plus single antihypertensive (e.g., lisinopril or
amlodipine)
D. Dual combination therapy (ACEi + CCB)
*Rationale : Stage 1 hypertension in adults with ASCVD risk ≥10% (or after 3–6
months failed lifestyle) warrants pharmacotherapy. This patient’s BP is Stage 1;
guideline recommends lifestyle + single agent.*
2. Which ECG finding is most specific for prior myocardial infarction?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Pathologic Q waves
,C. ST elevation in V2–V4
D. Inverted T waves in lead III
Rationale : Pathologic Q waves (≥0.04 sec wide, ≥25% of R wave height) indicate
transmural scar from prior MI.
3. First-line drug for chronic stable angina with no contraindications is:
A. Aspirin 81 mg
B. Metoprolol succinate
C. Amlodipine
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Rationale : Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and improve survival
post-MI; they are first-line for chronic stable angina.
4. A 72-year-old woman presents with acute-onset dyspnea, elevated JVP, and
crackles to mid-lungs. BP 160/90, HR 110. Which intervention is most
appropriate first?
A. Oral metoprolol
B. IV furosemide
C. Dobutamine infusion
D. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual
Rationale : Acute decompensated heart failure with fluid overload requires IV loop
diuretic for rapid decongestion.
5. Which medication class has the strongest mortality benefit in HFrEF (EF
≤40%)?
A. ARBs
B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol)
C. Hydralazine + nitrate
D. Digoxin
*Rationale : Beta-blockers are one of the four pillars (BB, ACEi/ARNI, MRA,
SGLT2i) with robust mortality reduction.*
6. A patient’s lipid panel: LDL 190 mg/dL, HDL 35, TG 150. No ASCVD or
diabetes. Age 45. Next best step?
A. Start atorvastatin 40 mg
B. Start moderate-intensity statin (atorvastatin 10–20 mg)
, C. Repeat lipid panel in 1 year
D. Coronary artery calcium scoring
*Rationale : LDL ≥190 mg/dL is a statin indication regardless of risk. Moderate-
intensity statin is first-line per ACC/AHA.*
7. Which finding is consistent with pericarditis?
A. Diffuse ST elevation, PR depression
B. Deep Q waves in V1–V3
C. Wellens’ pattern
D. J point elevation with notching
Rationale : Acute pericarditis shows diffuse ST elevation (concave up) and PR
segment depression.
8. A fib with RVR, hemodynamically stable, onset <48 hours. Best acute
management?
A. Immediate electrical cardioversion
B. Rate control (metoprolol IV or diltiazem IV)
C. Aspirin 325 mg
D. Anticoagulation and discharge
Rationale : For onset <48 hours but stable, rate control first; if rhythm fails to
convert, consider cardioversion after TEE or if anticoagulated.
9. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Nifedipine
C. Methyldopa
D. Lisinopril
Rationale : ACE inhibitors cause fetal renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fetal
demise; contraindicated in pregnancy.
10. An 80-year-old with hypertension has BP 130/80 on chlorthalidone but
feels dizzy when standing. Next step?
A. Add amlodipine
B. Discontinue chlorthalidone, recheck BP
C. Increase chlorthalidone to 25 mg
D. Start midodrine
PRACTITIONER EXAM PREP
FULL Q&A||Questions And Answers
With Rationales/Graded A+/2026
Update/100% Correct /Instant
Download
Topic Test: Advanced Clinical Practice & Professional Issues
Latest 2026 Edition | 80+ Questions with Rationales
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–12)
1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension has a BP of 148/92 mmHg in clinic.
Home readings average 146/90. He has no diabetes or CKD. According to
ACC/AHA 2023 updated guidelines, which is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
A. Lifestyle modification only, recheck in 6 months
B. Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
C. Lifestyle modification plus single antihypertensive (e.g., lisinopril or
amlodipine)
D. Dual combination therapy (ACEi + CCB)
*Rationale : Stage 1 hypertension in adults with ASCVD risk ≥10% (or after 3–6
months failed lifestyle) warrants pharmacotherapy. This patient’s BP is Stage 1;
guideline recommends lifestyle + single agent.*
2. Which ECG finding is most specific for prior myocardial infarction?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Pathologic Q waves
,C. ST elevation in V2–V4
D. Inverted T waves in lead III
Rationale : Pathologic Q waves (≥0.04 sec wide, ≥25% of R wave height) indicate
transmural scar from prior MI.
3. First-line drug for chronic stable angina with no contraindications is:
A. Aspirin 81 mg
B. Metoprolol succinate
C. Amlodipine
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Rationale : Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and improve survival
post-MI; they are first-line for chronic stable angina.
4. A 72-year-old woman presents with acute-onset dyspnea, elevated JVP, and
crackles to mid-lungs. BP 160/90, HR 110. Which intervention is most
appropriate first?
A. Oral metoprolol
B. IV furosemide
C. Dobutamine infusion
D. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual
Rationale : Acute decompensated heart failure with fluid overload requires IV loop
diuretic for rapid decongestion.
5. Which medication class has the strongest mortality benefit in HFrEF (EF
≤40%)?
A. ARBs
B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol)
C. Hydralazine + nitrate
D. Digoxin
*Rationale : Beta-blockers are one of the four pillars (BB, ACEi/ARNI, MRA,
SGLT2i) with robust mortality reduction.*
6. A patient’s lipid panel: LDL 190 mg/dL, HDL 35, TG 150. No ASCVD or
diabetes. Age 45. Next best step?
A. Start atorvastatin 40 mg
B. Start moderate-intensity statin (atorvastatin 10–20 mg)
, C. Repeat lipid panel in 1 year
D. Coronary artery calcium scoring
*Rationale : LDL ≥190 mg/dL is a statin indication regardless of risk. Moderate-
intensity statin is first-line per ACC/AHA.*
7. Which finding is consistent with pericarditis?
A. Diffuse ST elevation, PR depression
B. Deep Q waves in V1–V3
C. Wellens’ pattern
D. J point elevation with notching
Rationale : Acute pericarditis shows diffuse ST elevation (concave up) and PR
segment depression.
8. A fib with RVR, hemodynamically stable, onset <48 hours. Best acute
management?
A. Immediate electrical cardioversion
B. Rate control (metoprolol IV or diltiazem IV)
C. Aspirin 325 mg
D. Anticoagulation and discharge
Rationale : For onset <48 hours but stable, rate control first; if rhythm fails to
convert, consider cardioversion after TEE or if anticoagulated.
9. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Nifedipine
C. Methyldopa
D. Lisinopril
Rationale : ACE inhibitors cause fetal renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fetal
demise; contraindicated in pregnancy.
10. An 80-year-old with hypertension has BP 130/80 on chlorthalidone but
feels dizzy when standing. Next step?
A. Add amlodipine
B. Discontinue chlorthalidone, recheck BP
C. Increase chlorthalidone to 25 mg
D. Start midodrine
