CHAMBERLAIN FNP EXAM
CRASH COURSE: FAST REVISION
Q&A BUNDLE||Questions And
Answers With Rationales/Graded
A+/2026 Update/100% Correct
/Instant Download
2026 UPDATED TOPIC TEST – 80+ QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: Cardiology & Hypertension (Questions 1–10)
1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes has a BP of 148/90
mmHg on lisinopril 20 mg daily. What is the NEXT step?
• A) Add amlodipine 5 mg daily
• B) Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily
• C) Add HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
• D) Switch to losartan 50 mg daily
Correct Answer: A (Add amlodipine 5 mg daily)
Rationale : ACC/AHA guidelines recommend adding a calcium channel blocker or
thiazide if BP remains elevated on ACE inhibitor monotherapy, especially in
diabetics. Amlodipine is first-line add-on.
2. Which finding is most specific for heart failure with preserved ejection
fraction (HFpEF)?
• A) LVEF <40%
, • B) Elevated BNP with LVEF ≥50%
• C) Pulmonary edema on CXR
• D) S3 gallop
Correct Answer: B (Elevated BNP with LVEF ≥50%)
Rationale : HFpEF diagnosis requires signs/symptoms of HF, LVEF ≥50%, and
evidence of diastolic dysfunction or elevated filling pressures (e.g., BNP).
3. First-line therapy for stable angina in a patient with known CAD is:
• A) Aspirin 81 mg daily
• B) Sublingual nitroglycerin
• C) Metoprolol succinate
• D) Atorvastatin 80 mg
Correct Answer: C (Metoprolol succinate)
Rationale : Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and are first-line for
chronic stable angina. Statins and aspirin are secondary prevention.
4. A 72-year-old woman reports "fluttering" in her chest. ECG shows
irregularly irregular rhythm without P waves. HR 110 bpm. What is the BEST
initial management?
• A) Immediate cardioversion
• B) Digoxin loading
• C) Rate control with metoprolol
• D) Aspirin 325 mg
Correct Answer: C (Rate control with metoprolol)
Rationale : Hemodynamically stable atrial fibrillation should be rate-controlled
first (beta-blocker or CCB). Anticoagulation based on CHA₂DS₂-VASc.
5. Which medication class reduces mortality in systolic heart failure (HFrEF)?
• A) Loop diuretics
• B) Digoxin
• C) Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate
, • D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: D (Spironolactone)
Rationale : Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists reduce mortality in HFrEF
(NYHA II-IV). Loop diuretics only control symptoms.
6. A 45-year-old with no cardiac history has a BP of 162/100 mmHg on two
occasions. No target organ damage. Next step?
• A) Start amlodipine
• B) Order renal artery duplex
• C) Start lisinopril and HCTZ
• D) Lifestyle modification + lisinopril
Correct Answer: D (Lifestyle modification + lisinopril)
Rationale : Stage 2 hypertension (≥160/100) warrants immediate drug therapy plus
lifestyle changes.
7. Most accurate test for diagnosing DVT in an outpatient?
• A) D-dimer
• B) Venous duplex ultrasound
• C) CT venography
• D) MRI
Correct Answer: B (Venous duplex ultrasound)
Rationale : Ultrasound is noninvasive, sensitive, and specific. D-dimer is sensitive
but not specific.
8. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF. Which artery is likely
occluded?
• A) Left anterior descending
• B) Left circumflex
• C) Right coronary artery
• D) Ramus intermedius
CRASH COURSE: FAST REVISION
Q&A BUNDLE||Questions And
Answers With Rationales/Graded
A+/2026 Update/100% Correct
/Instant Download
2026 UPDATED TOPIC TEST – 80+ QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: Cardiology & Hypertension (Questions 1–10)
1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes has a BP of 148/90
mmHg on lisinopril 20 mg daily. What is the NEXT step?
• A) Add amlodipine 5 mg daily
• B) Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily
• C) Add HCTZ 12.5 mg daily
• D) Switch to losartan 50 mg daily
Correct Answer: A (Add amlodipine 5 mg daily)
Rationale : ACC/AHA guidelines recommend adding a calcium channel blocker or
thiazide if BP remains elevated on ACE inhibitor monotherapy, especially in
diabetics. Amlodipine is first-line add-on.
2. Which finding is most specific for heart failure with preserved ejection
fraction (HFpEF)?
• A) LVEF <40%
, • B) Elevated BNP with LVEF ≥50%
• C) Pulmonary edema on CXR
• D) S3 gallop
Correct Answer: B (Elevated BNP with LVEF ≥50%)
Rationale : HFpEF diagnosis requires signs/symptoms of HF, LVEF ≥50%, and
evidence of diastolic dysfunction or elevated filling pressures (e.g., BNP).
3. First-line therapy for stable angina in a patient with known CAD is:
• A) Aspirin 81 mg daily
• B) Sublingual nitroglycerin
• C) Metoprolol succinate
• D) Atorvastatin 80 mg
Correct Answer: C (Metoprolol succinate)
Rationale : Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and are first-line for
chronic stable angina. Statins and aspirin are secondary prevention.
4. A 72-year-old woman reports "fluttering" in her chest. ECG shows
irregularly irregular rhythm without P waves. HR 110 bpm. What is the BEST
initial management?
• A) Immediate cardioversion
• B) Digoxin loading
• C) Rate control with metoprolol
• D) Aspirin 325 mg
Correct Answer: C (Rate control with metoprolol)
Rationale : Hemodynamically stable atrial fibrillation should be rate-controlled
first (beta-blocker or CCB). Anticoagulation based on CHA₂DS₂-VASc.
5. Which medication class reduces mortality in systolic heart failure (HFrEF)?
• A) Loop diuretics
• B) Digoxin
• C) Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate
, • D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: D (Spironolactone)
Rationale : Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists reduce mortality in HFrEF
(NYHA II-IV). Loop diuretics only control symptoms.
6. A 45-year-old with no cardiac history has a BP of 162/100 mmHg on two
occasions. No target organ damage. Next step?
• A) Start amlodipine
• B) Order renal artery duplex
• C) Start lisinopril and HCTZ
• D) Lifestyle modification + lisinopril
Correct Answer: D (Lifestyle modification + lisinopril)
Rationale : Stage 2 hypertension (≥160/100) warrants immediate drug therapy plus
lifestyle changes.
7. Most accurate test for diagnosing DVT in an outpatient?
• A) D-dimer
• B) Venous duplex ultrasound
• C) CT venography
• D) MRI
Correct Answer: B (Venous duplex ultrasound)
Rationale : Ultrasound is noninvasive, sensitive, and specific. D-dimer is sensitive
but not specific.
8. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF. Which artery is likely
occluded?
• A) Left anterior descending
• B) Left circumflex
• C) Right coronary artery
• D) Ramus intermedius
