NR605 Exam 4 Actual Exam Style V3 | NR 605
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental
Health across the Lifespan | Chamberlain
1. A 72-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of visual hallucinations,
fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian motor features. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Alzheimer’s Disease
B. Vascular Dementia
C. Frontotemporal Dementia
D. Lewy Body Dementia
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Lewy Body Dementia is characterized by the triad of
fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and spontaneous motor features of
parkinsonism. Unlike Alzheimer’s, the cognitive decline often overlaps or follows
the motor symptoms within a year. Management requires caution with
antipsychotics due to extreme sensitivity to extrapyramidal side effects.
2. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with
Autism Spectrum Disorder in children aged 5 to 16?
A. Lithium
,B. Quetiapine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Aripiprazole
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Aripiprazole and Risperidone are the only two atypical
antipsychotics currently FDA-approved for irritability associated with autism in
pediatric populations. These medications help manage symptoms such as
aggression, self-injury, and severe temper tantrums. Monitoring for metabolic side
effects and weight gain is essential during treatment.
3. An 8-year-old child displays a consistent pattern of losing temper, arguing with
authority figures, and actively defying requests. These symptoms have lasted for 8
months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
C. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
D. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Correct Answer: D
,Expert Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) is characterized by a
pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness
lasting at least 6 months. Unlike Conduct Disorder, ODD does not typically involve
physical aggression toward people or animals or serious violations of societal
norms. Treatment often involves parent management training and behavioral
therapy.
4. What is the primary legal difference between ‘competency’ and ‘capacity’ in
psychiatric practice?
A. Competency is a legal determination made by a judge, while capacity is a clinical
assessment made by a provider.
B. Capacity is a legal determination made by a judge, while competency is a clinical
assessment.
C. There is no legal difference; the terms are used interchangeably.
D. Capacity only applies to the elderly, while competency applies to all ages.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Competency is a formal legal status determined by a court of
law regarding an individual’s ability to handle their affairs. Capacity is a functional
assessment performed by a clinician to determine if a patient can make a specific
, healthcare decision at a specific time. Clinicians assess capacity, but only judges can
declare someone legally incompetent.
5. In the treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease, which medication acts as an NMDA
receptor antagonist?
A. Memantine
B. Rivastigmine
C. Donepezil
D. Galantamine
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Memantine is classified as an NMDA receptor antagonist that
works by regulating the activity of glutamate, a chemical messenger involved in
information processing. The other options listed (Donepezil, Rivastigmine,
Galantamine) are cholinesterase inhibitors. Memantine is often used for moderate
to severe stages of Alzheimer’s Disease, either alone or in combination with a
cholinesterase inhibitor.
6. A 14-year-old patient with ADHD and a history of substance abuse requires
medication. Which of the following is the best non-stimulant choice?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Lisdexamfetamine
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental
Health across the Lifespan | Chamberlain
1. A 72-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of visual hallucinations,
fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian motor features. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Alzheimer’s Disease
B. Vascular Dementia
C. Frontotemporal Dementia
D. Lewy Body Dementia
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Lewy Body Dementia is characterized by the triad of
fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and spontaneous motor features of
parkinsonism. Unlike Alzheimer’s, the cognitive decline often overlaps or follows
the motor symptoms within a year. Management requires caution with
antipsychotics due to extreme sensitivity to extrapyramidal side effects.
2. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with
Autism Spectrum Disorder in children aged 5 to 16?
A. Lithium
,B. Quetiapine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Aripiprazole
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Aripiprazole and Risperidone are the only two atypical
antipsychotics currently FDA-approved for irritability associated with autism in
pediatric populations. These medications help manage symptoms such as
aggression, self-injury, and severe temper tantrums. Monitoring for metabolic side
effects and weight gain is essential during treatment.
3. An 8-year-old child displays a consistent pattern of losing temper, arguing with
authority figures, and actively defying requests. These symptoms have lasted for 8
months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
C. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
D. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Correct Answer: D
,Expert Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) is characterized by a
pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness
lasting at least 6 months. Unlike Conduct Disorder, ODD does not typically involve
physical aggression toward people or animals or serious violations of societal
norms. Treatment often involves parent management training and behavioral
therapy.
4. What is the primary legal difference between ‘competency’ and ‘capacity’ in
psychiatric practice?
A. Competency is a legal determination made by a judge, while capacity is a clinical
assessment made by a provider.
B. Capacity is a legal determination made by a judge, while competency is a clinical
assessment.
C. There is no legal difference; the terms are used interchangeably.
D. Capacity only applies to the elderly, while competency applies to all ages.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Competency is a formal legal status determined by a court of
law regarding an individual’s ability to handle their affairs. Capacity is a functional
assessment performed by a clinician to determine if a patient can make a specific
, healthcare decision at a specific time. Clinicians assess capacity, but only judges can
declare someone legally incompetent.
5. In the treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease, which medication acts as an NMDA
receptor antagonist?
A. Memantine
B. Rivastigmine
C. Donepezil
D. Galantamine
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Memantine is classified as an NMDA receptor antagonist that
works by regulating the activity of glutamate, a chemical messenger involved in
information processing. The other options listed (Donepezil, Rivastigmine,
Galantamine) are cholinesterase inhibitors. Memantine is often used for moderate
to severe stages of Alzheimer’s Disease, either alone or in combination with a
cholinesterase inhibitor.
6. A 14-year-old patient with ADHD and a history of substance abuse requires
medication. Which of the following is the best non-stimulant choice?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Lisdexamfetamine
