1
NR601 Midterm Exam Study Guide Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Primary Care of the Adult (Common Conditions) — Questions 1-20]
Q1: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA Hypertension Guidelines, which of the following blood
pressure readings classifies a patient as having "Stage 1 Hypertension"?
A. 118/76 mmHg
B. 124/82 mmHg
C. 132/84 mmHg
D. 142/92 mmHg
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 1 Hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 130–139 mmHg OR a
diastolic blood pressure of 80–89 mmHg. Option A is Normal (<120/<80), Option B is Elevated
(120-129/<80), and Option D is Stage 2 Hypertension (≥140/≥90). Identifying the correct stage
is essential for determining when to initiate pharmacotherapy versus lifestyle modifications
alone.
Q2: An African American patient with newly diagnosed Stage 1 Hypertension without
comorbidities like Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) or Heart Failure (HF) requires medication.
Which first-line agent is recommended for this population?
A. ACE Inhibitor
B. Beta-blocker
C. Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) or Thiazide Diuretic
D. Alpha-blocker
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
,2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clinical guidelines recommend Thiazide diuretics or Calcium Channel Blockers
(CCBs) as first-line therapy for African American patients because they often have low renin
levels, making ACE Inhibitors and ARBs less effective as monotherapy. Options A and B are not
first-line for this demographic for uncomplicated HTN. Alpha-blockers are not first-line for
HTN.
Q3: A 55-year-old patient with Stage 2 Hypertension asks about lifestyle modifications. Which
recommendation is consistent with the DASH diet and cardiovascular guidelines?
A. Limit sodium intake to less than 3,000 mg per day.
B. Engage in moderate-intensity exercise at least 150 minutes per week.
C. Drink red wine daily for heart health.
D. Increase protein intake to 30% of total calories.
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physical activity is a cornerstone of hypertension management; guidelines recommend
at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week. Dietary sodium should be
restricted (<1500-2300 mg/day), not limited to 3000 mg. While red wine may have
cardiovascular components, "daily consumption" is not a guideline recommendation for HTN
management, and increased protein isn't the primary focus of DASH.
Q4: A 45-year-old patient presents for a routine exam. Lab results show a Fasting Plasma
Glucose of 128 mg/dL, confirmed on a second test. Which diagnosis is correct?
A. Prediabetes
B. Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
C. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
D. Impaired Glucose Tolerance
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
,3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes include a fasting plasma glucose of ≥126 mg/dL.
Prediabetes is 100–125 mg/dL. Impaired Glucose Tolerance is defined by the 2-hour OGTT
(140–199 mg/dL). This patient meets the threshold for Type 2 Diabetes diagnosis.
Q5: You are initiating pharmacotherapy for a 65-year-old patient with newly diagnosed Type 2
Diabetes and an eGFR of 55 mL/min. Which medication is the most appropriate first-line
choice?
A. Metformin
B. Sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
C. Glimepiride (Sulfonylurea)
D. Insulin Glargine
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is the first-line oral agent for Type 2 Diabetes due to its efficacy, low cost,
and weight neutrality/loss benefit. It is generally safe unless the eGFR is <30 mL/min. Option C
carries a risk of hypoglycemia, Option D is usually reserved for later stages or significant
hyperglycemia, and Option B is often add-on therapy.
Q6: A patient with Type 2 Diabetes and established Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease
(ASCVD) is already on Metformin. Which class of medication should be added regardless of
their HbA1c level to provide cardiovascular benefit?
A. Sulfonylurea
B. Basal Insulin
C. GLP-1 agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor
D. Thiazolidinedione (TZD)
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
, 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Guidelines recommend adding a GLP-1 agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor for patients with
Type 2 Diabetes who have established ASCVD to reduce cardiovascular mortality and events.
These drugs offer cardioprotective benefits independent of glucose lowering. Sulfonylureas and
basal insulin do not offer this specific CV protection profile.
Q7: According to lipid management guidelines, a statin should be prescribed for primary
prevention in which of the following scenarios?
A. All adults over age 30.
B. Adults aged 40–75 years with an ASCVD risk of 7.5% or higher.
C. Adults over age 60 regardless of risk factors.
D. Only patients with a family history of heart disease.
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guidelines recommend moderate-intensity statin therapy for adults aged 40–75 who
have a 10-year ASCVD risk of 7.5% or higher for primary prevention. Option A is too broad.
Statin intensity is based on risk percentage and individual factors, not strictly age alone as in
Option C.
Q8: A 55-year-old male smoker has just suffered a Myocardial Infarction (MI). What is the
recommended LDL-C target for this patient (Secondary Prevention)?
A. <100 mg/dL
B. <70 mg/dL
C. <50 mg/dL
D. <130 mg/dL
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
NR601 Midterm Exam Study Guide Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Primary Care of the Adult (Common Conditions) — Questions 1-20]
Q1: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA Hypertension Guidelines, which of the following blood
pressure readings classifies a patient as having "Stage 1 Hypertension"?
A. 118/76 mmHg
B. 124/82 mmHg
C. 132/84 mmHg
D. 142/92 mmHg
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 1 Hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 130–139 mmHg OR a
diastolic blood pressure of 80–89 mmHg. Option A is Normal (<120/<80), Option B is Elevated
(120-129/<80), and Option D is Stage 2 Hypertension (≥140/≥90). Identifying the correct stage
is essential for determining when to initiate pharmacotherapy versus lifestyle modifications
alone.
Q2: An African American patient with newly diagnosed Stage 1 Hypertension without
comorbidities like Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) or Heart Failure (HF) requires medication.
Which first-line agent is recommended for this population?
A. ACE Inhibitor
B. Beta-blocker
C. Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) or Thiazide Diuretic
D. Alpha-blocker
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
,2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clinical guidelines recommend Thiazide diuretics or Calcium Channel Blockers
(CCBs) as first-line therapy for African American patients because they often have low renin
levels, making ACE Inhibitors and ARBs less effective as monotherapy. Options A and B are not
first-line for this demographic for uncomplicated HTN. Alpha-blockers are not first-line for
HTN.
Q3: A 55-year-old patient with Stage 2 Hypertension asks about lifestyle modifications. Which
recommendation is consistent with the DASH diet and cardiovascular guidelines?
A. Limit sodium intake to less than 3,000 mg per day.
B. Engage in moderate-intensity exercise at least 150 minutes per week.
C. Drink red wine daily for heart health.
D. Increase protein intake to 30% of total calories.
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physical activity is a cornerstone of hypertension management; guidelines recommend
at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week. Dietary sodium should be
restricted (<1500-2300 mg/day), not limited to 3000 mg. While red wine may have
cardiovascular components, "daily consumption" is not a guideline recommendation for HTN
management, and increased protein isn't the primary focus of DASH.
Q4: A 45-year-old patient presents for a routine exam. Lab results show a Fasting Plasma
Glucose of 128 mg/dL, confirmed on a second test. Which diagnosis is correct?
A. Prediabetes
B. Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
C. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
D. Impaired Glucose Tolerance
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
,3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes include a fasting plasma glucose of ≥126 mg/dL.
Prediabetes is 100–125 mg/dL. Impaired Glucose Tolerance is defined by the 2-hour OGTT
(140–199 mg/dL). This patient meets the threshold for Type 2 Diabetes diagnosis.
Q5: You are initiating pharmacotherapy for a 65-year-old patient with newly diagnosed Type 2
Diabetes and an eGFR of 55 mL/min. Which medication is the most appropriate first-line
choice?
A. Metformin
B. Sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
C. Glimepiride (Sulfonylurea)
D. Insulin Glargine
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is the first-line oral agent for Type 2 Diabetes due to its efficacy, low cost,
and weight neutrality/loss benefit. It is generally safe unless the eGFR is <30 mL/min. Option C
carries a risk of hypoglycemia, Option D is usually reserved for later stages or significant
hyperglycemia, and Option B is often add-on therapy.
Q6: A patient with Type 2 Diabetes and established Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease
(ASCVD) is already on Metformin. Which class of medication should be added regardless of
their HbA1c level to provide cardiovascular benefit?
A. Sulfonylurea
B. Basal Insulin
C. GLP-1 agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor
D. Thiazolidinedione (TZD)
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
, 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Guidelines recommend adding a GLP-1 agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor for patients with
Type 2 Diabetes who have established ASCVD to reduce cardiovascular mortality and events.
These drugs offer cardioprotective benefits independent of glucose lowering. Sulfonylureas and
basal insulin do not offer this specific CV protection profile.
Q7: According to lipid management guidelines, a statin should be prescribed for primary
prevention in which of the following scenarios?
A. All adults over age 30.
B. Adults aged 40–75 years with an ASCVD risk of 7.5% or higher.
C. Adults over age 60 regardless of risk factors.
D. Only patients with a family history of heart disease.
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guidelines recommend moderate-intensity statin therapy for adults aged 40–75 who
have a 10-year ASCVD risk of 7.5% or higher for primary prevention. Option A is too broad.
Statin intensity is based on risk percentage and individual factors, not strictly age alone as in
Option C.
Q8: A 55-year-old male smoker has just suffered a Myocardial Infarction (MI). What is the
recommended LDL-C target for this patient (Secondary Prevention)?
A. <100 mg/dL
B. <70 mg/dL
C. <50 mg/dL
D. <130 mg/dL
C. [Correct answer] [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
