Pharmacology Week 3 Study Guide (WGU D441) 2026 |WGU
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect is most
commonly associated with ACE inhibitors and may lead to the medication being
discontinued?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Dry, hacking cough
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent, dry, nonproductive cough in some patients.
2. Which of the following medications is classified as an Angiotensin II Receptor
Blocker (ARB)?
A. Metoprolol
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Enalapril
Answer: B
Rationale: Losartan belongs to the ARB class, which works by blocking the binding of
Angiotensin II to its receptors.
,3. When administering a Beta-Blocker like Propranolol, the nurse should be
most cautious in patients with which underlying condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Glaucoma
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers like Propranolol can cause bronchoconstriction by
blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs, potentially triggering an asthma attack.
4. What is the mechanism of action for Calcium Channel Blockers like
Verapamil?
A. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
B. Increasing the excretion of sodium and water in the kidneys
C. Inhibiting the influx of calcium ions into cardiac and smooth muscle cells
D. Stimulating Alpha-2 receptors in the brain
Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium Channel Blockers inhibit the movement of calcium across cell
membranes, leading to vasodilation and decreased myocardial contractility.
5. A patient taking Spironolactone should be monitored for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone,
leading to potassium retention.
, 6. Which diuretic is often the first-line treatment for essential hypertension?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Mannitol
D. Acetazolamide
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics like Hydrochlorothiazide are typically the first choice for
managing uncomplicated hypertension.
7. What is the antidote for Heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: D
Rationale: Protamine Sulfate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the effects of
Heparin.
8. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.2. How should the nurse
interpret this result if the goal is for atrial fibrillation?
A. The INR is within the therapeutic range.
B. The INR is too high; the dose should be held.
C. The INR is sub-therapeutic; the dose may need to be increased.
D. The INR is at a toxic level.
Answer: C
Rationale: For most conditions like AFib, the therapeutic INR range is 2.0 to 3.0. A value of
1.2 is low (sub-therapeutic).
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect is most
commonly associated with ACE inhibitors and may lead to the medication being
discontinued?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Dry, hacking cough
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent, dry, nonproductive cough in some patients.
2. Which of the following medications is classified as an Angiotensin II Receptor
Blocker (ARB)?
A. Metoprolol
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Enalapril
Answer: B
Rationale: Losartan belongs to the ARB class, which works by blocking the binding of
Angiotensin II to its receptors.
,3. When administering a Beta-Blocker like Propranolol, the nurse should be
most cautious in patients with which underlying condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Glaucoma
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers like Propranolol can cause bronchoconstriction by
blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs, potentially triggering an asthma attack.
4. What is the mechanism of action for Calcium Channel Blockers like
Verapamil?
A. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
B. Increasing the excretion of sodium and water in the kidneys
C. Inhibiting the influx of calcium ions into cardiac and smooth muscle cells
D. Stimulating Alpha-2 receptors in the brain
Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium Channel Blockers inhibit the movement of calcium across cell
membranes, leading to vasodilation and decreased myocardial contractility.
5. A patient taking Spironolactone should be monitored for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone,
leading to potassium retention.
, 6. Which diuretic is often the first-line treatment for essential hypertension?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Mannitol
D. Acetazolamide
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics like Hydrochlorothiazide are typically the first choice for
managing uncomplicated hypertension.
7. What is the antidote for Heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: D
Rationale: Protamine Sulfate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the effects of
Heparin.
8. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.2. How should the nurse
interpret this result if the goal is for atrial fibrillation?
A. The INR is within the therapeutic range.
B. The INR is too high; the dose should be held.
C. The INR is sub-therapeutic; the dose may need to be increased.
D. The INR is at a toxic level.
Answer: C
Rationale: For most conditions like AFib, the therapeutic INR range is 2.0 to 3.0. A value of
1.2 is low (sub-therapeutic).
